Re: Why Do Pakistanis Reject their Indian heritage?
Before we being I would like to mention that it is commonly agreed(except in hindutva india) that the aryans invaded the indus valley civilization and displaced the dravidians amongst academics. Do you agree that this is the accepted history?
I would be interested in learning more about the decline of the indus valley civilizations, the migration/desertion of its inhabitiants, and the presence of a new 'civilization', the Cemetery H culture. Surprisingly they cremate their dead in the same fashion as hindus do today, while the indus valley inhabitants buried their dead in coffins. Also the links between vedic 'india' and zoroastrian iran which didn't exist during the times of the indus valley civilization.
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And if we "assume" that Harappans were Dravidian, even then they form a partial heritage of Pakistanis. This is because the genetic studies have concluded that the multi-racial Harappans' closest descendents are present-day Pakistanis.
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Show me proof for this.
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This is because of the fact that Harappans were not displaced by any invasion and instead were absorbed among the new invaders/migrants... racially getting mixed with the newcomers and adopting much of the newer languages/cultures.
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By the time the aryans arrived in 'india' the indus valley civilization was already in dissaray. The course of the river saraswati had changed direction and their is archeological evidence of people beginning to migrate/desert in easternly and southernly directions towards the gangetic plains. Whether this was caused by simply the river drying up or people being displaced by the invading aryans is upto debate.
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By the way, not to be confused with the Dravidoid/Sudroid/Australoid race, speaking a Dravidian langauge does not equate to being dark skinned and the Dravidian-speaking Brauhis are proof of this since they resemble the looks of lighter skinned Baluchs/etc.
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Have you ever seen a brahui? They're almost as dark as africans or indians.
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It is a known fact that Harappans were multi-racial. I can quote many archeologists and anthropologists who have proved that based on genetic and skeletal analysis. According to the renowned historian, Romila Thapar, "Anthropological investigation and examination of the human remains shows that four racial types existed in Harappan civilization. They were the proto-Australoid, Mediterranean, Alpine and the Mongoloid." This can be further confirmed in the findings published in American Journal of Physical Anthropology under "The Bronze-Age Harappans: A re-examination of the skulls".
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Why not mention who wrote this(a hindu from india) and how many skulls he analyzed(72) before he generalized about the entire indus valley civilization?
I'm surprised you quote romila thapar as a source for your argument.
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Very poor analogy. First of all, Aztecs of Mexico were never displaced, the Aztec masses were absorbed among the Spaniards. Thats why today's Mexican population is 60% Mestizo (racial mix of Spaniards and native Amerindians/Aztecs/etc.), 30% native Amerindians/Aztecs/etc., and 9% Spaniard Caucasians. The few thousand invading/migrating Spaniards were able to "Latinize" the millions of Mexican natives/aboriginals. The present-day Mexicans have every right to claim Aztec AND Spaniard history. Similarly, Pakistanis have every right to claim Harappan and Aryan history (and other histories).
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It was a thought experiment. Answer the questions.
As for this reponse, its equally as ridiculous as indians claiming british history as there exists a few anglo-indians amongst them.
Present day pakistanis have nothing to do with the indus valley civilization. There was nothing to be proud of until muslims came and civilized them.
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The claim of Harappans being Dravidian is also a theory! Iranians are not pure Aryans and nobody else is either! Present-day Iran itself is only 63% Aryan with the rest being Turkic and others. Then Iranians have been mixed with Greeks, Arabs, Turks, Mongols, etc. through their history (not just the Elamites) ... does this mean they are not Aryan?
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Obviously the people of iran whos ethnicity is arab, azeri etc are not 'aryans'. Why you went on this tangent is unclear.
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Actually more and more Turks and Greeks are realizing that they share a whole lot of heritage. If a few thousand Central Asian Turks invaded Anatolia, do you seriously believe that the millions of native Anatolians just vanished into some blackhole or were massacred at such a large scale? Of course they were "Turkicized"... everyone knows that!
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A few thousand turks did not conquer the eastern roman empire.
For me to agree with you because apparently "more and more Turks and Greeks are realizing that they share a whole lot of heritage" I would have to be partaking in the mental gymnastics olympic competitions.
To say turks and greeks are the same people, and then go on to say that turks and greeks agree to this, is too much.