Mr. Perplexing,
Let me take something out of context from your post.
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The words are added as you wished.
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Mr.perplexing admitts that he is messing around with the reference texts that he posts. he says that he adds the words according to someones wishes..
now that is a good example of taking things out of context...
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The words are added as you wished. Does that mean that the challenge has changed. Does it not still mean that not a single Lesson in Quran AND Hadith AND Tafseer.....???
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no. Mr. perplexing was presenting his argument in the "context" of something which was being discussed "then"...
in this case promised Massiah (as) wrote
""This is absolutely rubbish and illogical thing that the mother tongue of a person is different and the revelation is sent in a different tongue , which he can even not understand"..
I posted the next lines in my post..
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"So according to this arya samaj principle, the language of "rishis" (prophets) according to vedas (hindu scripture)was not sanskrit and they could even not speak or understand it, then (apparently) God sending them revelations in a foriegn language seems to be a deliberate plot to keep them unaware of His message. Then they say that God taught them the real message in their own mother tongue on what those scriptures meant, then this "promise" of God to them is broken that He will never communicate in human language."
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now your question is that
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Mirza Sahib has the philosophy that if the revelation is in a different language then GOD is purposely keeping them away from the message right...???Mirza Sahib has the philosophy that if the revelation is in a different language then GOD is purposely keeping them away from the message right...???
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If a revelation is intended to be a part of scripture.. Quran, old and new testament..etc it has to be in a language which people can understand easity.. i.e, hebrew, Arabic...
What is written in Nuzule Maseeh is about ilhamaat.. which are prophetic in nature (prophecies).. they are communications from God.
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Would you like to differentiate between the two WAHIS. where does this come from and where is this rule stating that one can be in different languages opposed to the other...???
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I am sure you must be aware of different forms of Wahi..
Wahi of Quran..
Hadith e Qudsi (which is not part of Quran).
Wahi to a honey bee.
Wahi to promised Massiah (according to Sahih muslim)..
so do you mean that Wahi to honeybee should also be included in scriptures?
Or ahaithe Qudsi should also be given the status of Quran??
Or will jesus (according to your beliefs) comes back and recieves Wahi (According to sahih muslim hadith) that will also be included in Quran.. or will it be called some other new book??
Dhul Qarnain also recieved revelations.. are they in the form of scripture..some commentators say that dhul qarnain is Alexander the great.. so should he be called a Prophet?? (our view is that Dhul Qaranian was Cyrus the great and not Alexander btw)