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*Originally posted by Ana: *
I did not realize this thread was still in existence. Khair..
None of u, Rhia or Gandalf, have submitted in ANY of your posts **ALI RA's OWN WORDS **IN WHICH HE APPROVED OF AND PERMITTED MUTAH FOR THE MUSLIMS OF HIS TIMES.
I am not talking about Imam Jafar Sadiq or Tabari or whoever. You have given those hadith, good. BUT do you have any conclusive AUTHORITY who has said all this?
Does Shi'ite literature ON ANY PAGE have even ONE sentence from **ALI * RA, where HE HIMSELF EXPLICTLY STATES MUTAH IS ALLOWED? *
Do you have a direct CLEAR and non-ambiguous answer for this?
We have Umar's own words, we have Muhammed SAW's own words, do you have Ali's own words?
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And my question is why do shia's need to prove that Maula Ali re-permitted mutah when he or his Prophet Mohammad P.B.U.H never prohibited it. I dont know of any shia book that says Maula Ali or Prophet Mohammad P.B.U.H ever prohibited the act...
But the interesting thing is some of the important questions were raised in the forum are still unanswered... Sister Rhia raised some important questions here
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*Originally posted by Rhia: *
Rhia...
Hadith No. 1 states: Mutah was practised and sanctioned by the Prophet.
Hadith 2: Mutah was practised in times of War only, again sanctioned by the Prophet.
Hadith 3: Mutah was banned by the Prophet till Judgement Day on the day of Khyber.
Hadith 4: Mutah was allowed during the conquest of Mecca (which occurred after Khyber) but then forbidden forever.
Hadith 5: Mutah was practised during the lifetime of the Prophet AND during the caliphate of Hazrat Abu Bakr.
Hadith 6: Mutah was prohibited by Hazrat Umar (implying it was prohibited by neither the Prophet nor Hazrat Abu Bakr)
Hadith 7: Hazrat Umar reminded people of the prohibition of Mutah. Actually this is not a Hadith but an interpretation of Hazrat Umar may have meant when he said “I prohibit two Mutahs which were allowed by the Prophet…”
Faced with all these contradictory Sahih Ahadith, one may be forgiven for becoming a little confused. Nevertheless, we will give all these Hadith the benefit of doubt however weak the narrations or the obvious contradictions in some (I won’t mention selectivity). However with reference to Hazrat Umar supposedly reminding people about the prohibition of Mutah, one may question as to why he clearly referenced the prohibition to himself rather than to the Prophet? Why did he NOT say “I remind you of the Prophet’s prohibition of Mutah” or “I prohibit that which the Prophet had prohibited”? Instead he states “I prohibit that which the Prophet allowed”. Someone needs to answer these questions.
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I also pointed out some questions
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*Originally posted by Insaniyat: *
I am not a scholar to argue in this issue... but according to the limited knowledge i have, I believe if muttah is something permitted during the time of Prophet, no other one has the right to over rule. We cannot change anything after prophet now can we... isnt that bidat... isnt there a ayat in the quran, which was revealed after the ghadeer incident
"Today I have perfected your religion and completed my favour upon you, and I was satisfied that Islam be your religion." (Qur'an 5:3)
and when the religon was perfected during the time of Prophet, what right does Umar has to over rule and impose strict punishments on it. Isnt thats how these other sects came into existance, because people kept changing things and tried imposing their veiws.
and to answer brother Faisal question about muttah close to prostitution, why is divorce allowed in islam, what will you call if a person marries a girl for awhile and later gives her haq mehar and leaves her. what will you call that. I believe muttah protects a girls right as compare to prostitution, she gets her right as a wife i believe and the kids to get inhertiance from their dad and probably prevents people from performing zina and other bad deeds. Brother God knows the best, if such a clause is there in islam, leave it to God, he knows what can be the reasons behind it. There might be deep meaning and concerns behind it which we might not know, and if u want a practical meaning about each of the clauses in islam, what would you call people going every year and performing tawafs of the four walls of Qaba.... What does that imply.
Sister Anna, yeah we don't read taraweeh's, but yeah in ramzan we are encouraged to read quran. Its just that we don't read it in forms as prayers, to the best of my knowledge it was something not practiced during the time of the Prophet and if its something that was introduced after his death, (like the ban of muttah) its a Bidaat we don't have to do.
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Any answers fellow brothers