Re: Why are two woman witnesses, equivalent to only one male witness in Islam ?
I patiently read though the thread and still cannot find anyone offering a reason for th einequality. The Q&A posted by Don786 simply reduces the severity of th einequlity a bit but still only manages to establish the fact that men and women are not considered equal as witnesses.
Perhaps we should make allowances for such a need in the 6th century.
Re: Why are two woman witnesses, equivalent to only one male witness in Islam ?
I patiently read though the thread and still cannot find anyone offering a reason for th einequality. The Q&A posted by Don786 simply reduces the severity of th einequlity a bit but still only manages to establish the fact that men and women are not considered equal as witnesses.
Perhaps we should make allowances for such a need in the 6th century.
Perhapse TA needs to clarify the meaning of 'eineulity' he thinks is presented anywhere in islam based on the witness issue.
Re: Why are two woman witnesses, equivalent to only one male witness in Islam ?
Well then the verse is no longer applicable in cases where women are businesswomen.
I take offense to the author comparing men to surgeons and women to general practitioners. So many surgeons are women.
From what I remember reading about the verse, the verse is specific to a time period where, lets face it, very few women had the financial and outside-world training to deal with those sorts of matters. Where you don't have those conditions, then the rule no longer applies. Simple. :)