What are the fundamental beliefs of Ahmadis?

[brahmachari99]

@stochastic

Can you tell me what according to you is the rational for Allah to continue the institution of Nabowat & Wahi after the consummation of Hidaya on Our Holy Prophet ?

http://www.paklinks.com/gs/religion-scripture/318944-what-fundamental-beliefs-ahmadis-post6495049.html#post6495049

& before you get angry again , think about it, The views we hold about your religious status is not based on any personal, racial or communal grudge towards you or your Messiah , its based on what we believe & what you believe in.

Stochastic,
Looking back at the post you’ve linked to, I agree with the points you have mentioned:

Please consider these

1. Allah’s Hidayat/Noor/Nabowat was perfected & reached its climax in the person of our Holy Prophet Hazrat Muhammad PBUH in the form of Quran
2. The integrity of Quran is protected from all concoctions, fabrications till eternity
3. Deen has been perfected/culminated on our Holy Prophet & our holy prophet successfully established a society/state in Medina based on the true deen in a single life-span .
4. The greatness of Humanity has been perfected in the person of our Holy Prophet Hazrat Muhammad PBUH meaning there can be no greater human being after our Holy Prophet Muhammad PBUH
5. The Risalat of our Holy prophet PBUH is global/eternal for all people till Qayamat & not limited to any time-space constraints.

The rationale is that Holy Prophet (SAW) himself has said that in the later days, Muslims would go astray and a Messiah would come to bring them back to the right path of Islam. And that Messiah would be a Nabi.

If there is to be no prophet after prophet Muhammad (SAW), then Jesus (AS) can’t come again, and certainly not to guide the Muslims, when Quran says that Jesus (AS) was sent to Bani Israel only. And if there can be no more wahi, then how would Jesus (AS) receive the wahi that one of the posters had earlier said he’ll receive in his second coming?

Also, can you please tell us what the last verse of Surah Alkauther mean? Quran is replying to the opponents that Prophet Muhammad (SAW) is abtar i.e., without issue. But Allah says it is the enemies, not Prophet Muhammad (SAW) who will remain without issue. Now is it not true that Muhammad (SAW) didn’t have any male sons while his enemies did?

But why then did Allah seemingly reinforce the allegation of Kuffar that Prophet Muhammad did not have any sons in Surah Alahzab? In the verse you have quoted (Alahzab, verse 40) Allah reassures that while Muhammad (SAW) is not the father of any men, but he is the Messenger of Allah, not only that but he’s the seal of the prophets, the spiritual father of all prophets, the best, of the highest stature among all prophets. It’s not Prophet Muhammad (SAW) but his enemies who are spiritually abtar, spiritually without issue.

If you take Khaatam un Nabiyyeen to mean “the last (i.e., no-one can come after him) of the Prophets”, then how does the first part of the verse relate to the second part: “Muhammad is not the father of any men among you, but he’s a Messenger of Allah and the Last of the Prophets?” What does not being the father of any men have anything to do with being the Messenger and Last Prophet? Do prophets not have sons?