So I was suggesting that there is a preferable format … that of the talak to be with the man and not with the woman, deviation to which is considered acceptable concession. I was not saying that it is not preferable, but that it is not the preference.
Whereas … Are you saying that whether the talak right is given to the woman or not or for that matter with the man or not, it is only considered permissible if both parties agree and there is no such thing as a preferable or standard format where this option exists?