Return of Hazrat Isa A.S.

[psyah]

Re: Return of Hazrat Isa A.S.

@kchughtai

I beg to differ. It is the example of ‘waffa/waffi’ ( (باب تفعیل not ‘tawaffa/tawaffi’. ‘Waffa’ for giving and ‘Tawaffa’ for taking.
Other examples on the same lines are 2:281, 3:185 (Tuwaffauna), 39:10 (yuwaffa).
I have already stated that in my earlier post in which I asked you to produce example. There is difference. It confuses me too but there is difference. I have Al-Munjad before me and difference is clear.

Peace kchughtai

I wrote this:

“In this verse **a derivative word **from the masdar above is tuwaffa - it means “to be given full compensation” … or to account for fully. This indicates clearly that there are other uses of the term outside the meaning of death. There are other places too …”

I don’t know why you are differing with me when **I am agreeing that they are two different words **… I stated that the use of the derivate words suggest that the literal meaning of “tuwaffee” is not death … and demonstrated this by the use of the derivative words also the word itself has been used for sleep state as well … for the last time I am not trying to prove that tuwaffe is not used for death, but I am saying it does not literally mean death and hence other options are possible and that much you have to accept - or of course continue to argue against.

Regarding the dictionary you keep refering to in Arabic … as Al-Munjad … is a book made up common understandings of the day … linguistically and to demonstrate the point by use of logic in more scientific terms the term “maut” in Arabic is predicated of the term “tuwaffee” but the term “tuwaffee” is not predicated of the term “maut” - Maut is a class of the object tuwaffee … which means everything that can be said about death is contained in the meaning of the word tuwaffee but since tuwaffee means more than this the reverse cannot be said as true … which means the two words are not technically synoymous, but they are commonly understood to mean the same thing ..

@kchughtai

Here ‘tawaffe’ has been used in past. Certainly, since the dialogue will be on the judgment day but please take a closer look at the answer of Isa (as). He has shown obliviousness of the fact that his (as) nation did shirk by making him a son of God.
Only two eras has been mentioned

1. Before ‘tawaffe’ when Isa (as) was responsible for his people
2. After ‘tawaffe’ when Allah was watcher over them.

Not a remote mention, not even a hint about the third era when he once again became a witness over them.
What Isa (as) will say clearly shows that his followers deviated from the right path after his ‘tawaffe’. As his followers are already considering him son of God and even God so his (as) ‘tawaffe’ has certainly already happened. No doubt about it.

My simple answer to this is that your point 1. takes place in the first and second coming and your point 2. takes place between the first and second coming …

My more detailed response will include that I disagree he (AS) shows obliviousness - rather it is a phrase used to show that he was not responsible for what they did when he (AS) was not around …