Re: pedophiles and homosexuals
If sexual attraction is natural, why can’t pedophiles claim so as well?
I am not talking about legal, social or moral consequences. I am just curious about psychological reasoning where homosexuality is considered normal behavior (claiming homosexuals cannot help their orientation) and pedophilia is considered a deviant behavior (claiming it is not ‘normal’ to be sexually attracted towards children). How does one decide what type of sexual attraction is psychologically ‘normal’ and what type is not?