*Originally posted by ammarr: *
ufff yar had ho gayee :p
Let me explain:
A good explanation of the words of the Quran can be found in the actions of the Prophet and by his companions. AND SINCE THE QURAN DOES NOT SINGLE OUT ANY GARMENT, WE LOOK AT HOW THESE PEOPLE IMPLEMENTED THIS ORDER IN THEIR DAILY LIVES!!!! **
yeah and i understand that. would it then also not make sense to look at what the prophet said himself which noted that women dont have to cover their faces? would that suffice?
err why the caps, losing your cool or does shouting usually get the message across better in your view.
*NO SCHOLAR (like i said please pick any scholar) disagrees that the veil is considered better.. *
but not required. praying 20 nafils after a farz namaz is considerd better to but only the farz is required. and there are plenty of scholars who dont consider it better.
No scholar has proven that covering teh face is required..they have made arguments for it and have hadeeth and narrations from diff sources but it has never been proven.
Due to there being SOME (comparitively little) evidence that a few women did just cover their hair, and not their face, doing the head scarf is considered acceptable.
The prophets own words regarding this seem to be of no interest in this regard then?
is it acceptable or is it what is required, see thats the whole word play here. you see it as the minimum as could be done but that doing more is actually asked. I look it as this is whatis required, anything more is upto you.
Ok bhai me out of this thread.. i can not state this in any simpler terms.
Its not that I dont understand you, I disagree. you can make it as simple as humanly possible, but based on what I have read I still disagree.
*btw- the wives of the Prophet did not remarry because certain orders are specific to the Prophet, such as keeping 4+ wives. Once we have the knowledge to distinguish between the khaas (specific) and aam (general) rulings then we can come back to that.. ok?! *
Okay, so there were rules specific to the prophets family. lame statements like "once we have the knowledge to distinguish" make no sense here. I knew teh difference and that is why i brought it up as an example of how the examples set by them are not always applicable to everyone and thus making a blanket statement like that we shoudl follow their example in every way is incorrect.
secondly..it really would nto kill you to educate people. For others here who may nto know and even if i did nto know it would have been far more mature to explain the difference of khaas or aam rulings rather than your last statement there.