Seminole, a few thoughts from me if i may:
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*Originally posted by Seminole: *
Is it accurate to say that the Quran tells that Jesus was a sign to show the way to the Jews and that some ignored it – (current Jews) and some listened (Christians), but those were led astray by inaccurate translations?
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Jesus (as) himself came with miraculous signs from God as a Messenger to the Children of Israel. This is repeated in many passages of the Qur'an (e.g. 3:49, 5:110). Other descriptions of him in the Qur'an mention the fact that he:
was born of a virgin birth (3:45-47, 19:16-22);
was taught the Torah and confirmed it (3:48, 50);
made permissible things that were formerly prohibited (3:50);
is titled the Messiah (4:157)
foretold the advent of a future Messenger (61:6)
... and more.
And that God characterized his followers with compassion and mercy:
"We sent after them Jesus, the son of Mary, and bestowed on him the Injil (Gospel); and We ordained in the hearts of those who followed him compassion and mercy..." (57:27)
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Since only a scattering of Jesus' actual words are recorded accurately in the Bible, Mohammed was sent to give the final word?
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With the exception of Prophet Muhammad (s) all the previous Prophets were succeeded by a Prophet that came after them. In this respect, Jesus (as) is no different. Jesus was also given the role of clarifying the disputes that had arisen among the Children of Israel:
"When Jesus came with clear signs, he said: 'Now have i come to you with Wisdom, and in order to make clear to you some of the points on which you dispute: therefore fear Allah and obey me." (43:63)
Prophet Muhammad (s) did exactly the same - correcting the differences about how people viewed the teachings of former Prophets and Scripture.
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Is there any record of which quotes of Jesus are accurate, or is one gospel more reliable than another?
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It is open to dispute whether the four canonical Gospels that we have today - Matthew, Mark, Luke and John - together reflect or form what the Qur'an calls the Injil (Gospel). Even among Christians there is a theory that these Gospels had a common source that has not survived. Perhaps that earlier work gave a more accurate account of what Jesus (as) said and did? Luke himself points out that "Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled..." (Luke 1:1) so it seems clear that a number of "gospels" were already in circulation around that time. Reference is sometimes made to the Gospel of Barnabas but this could itself be just another spurious work.
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Are the Old Testament and the New Testament equally inaccurate?
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I'd like to come back to the question you asked earlier: "How do Muslims know which parts of the Bible are accurate or not?" I think there's basically three rules that can be applied here:
Muslims accept as true and accurate those Biblical narratives that are confirmed by the Qur'an or the teachings of Prophet Muhammad (s). This would include, among other things, some details on the lives of the Prophets that are mentioned both in the Bible and the Qur'an, Noah's Ark, the parting of the Red Sea, the existence of Angels, sin and repentance, the Devil and of course the fundamental truth of there being One true God.
A rejection of those Biblical teachings that contradict the Qur'an or the teachings of Prophet Muhammad (s). Examples of which would include the killing of Jesus (as), that Abraham was asked to sacrifice Isaac and not Ishmael, a Trinitarian concept of God and so on.
Where the Qur'an or Prophet Muhammad (s) neither confirm nor deny something found in the Bible the safest approach is to withhold judgement unless there is some compelling evidence that suggests the Biblical account is either accurate or inaccurate.
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Do Muslims believe it intentional (deceptive) of the authors of the Bible, or just a grossly inaccurate translation?
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The text was probably affected by one or more of the following:
Deliberate tampering
Careless scribal errors
Spurious or anonymous writings superceding more authoritative ones
Inaccurate translations and interpretations
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For example, as many times as "The Son of God" is mentioned, someone either really screwed up that translation, all of the apostles had totally misunderstood Jesus, or it was intentional on the part of the translators, authors or Catholic Church to lead the flock astray.
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This could be a case of inaccurate interpretation rather than any tampering of the text itself. The title "son of God" is applied to many individuals in the Bible (including the OT) not just to Jesus. It gives it an honorific connotation as opposed to signifying that any individual so titled is somehow God's "begotten" son. If Jesus earns a special status by virtue of being called "son of God" then that same status should be accorded to others as well (including those described as being God's "firstborn").
In some places in the New Testament it describes people "worshipping" Jesus. However, if one considers this in Aramaic (and possibly even the Greek or Latin?) the text usually says nothing more than the fact that someone "prostrated" before Jesus. Prostration doesn't necessarily equate to worship. However, a translator or commentator could quite easily amend the significance of passages like this based on his own theological preconceptions of who Jesus was and what the text should say about him. Matthew 28:17 reads: "When they saw him (Jesus), they worshipped him..." (NIV). How does this compare with what actually took place?
And Allah knows best.
Iqbal