Considering the apparent proof of her sleeping around is lying about phone calls (bad in itself but not really proof unless I missed something?) it’s not surprising the OP is equating her lack of bleeding to not being a virgin.. Too much craziness, paranoia and double-standards here.. She slept with him before marriage so the assumption is she’s sleeping with others and that makes her a sl*t? The thought that she may have slept with her ex-husband bothered him so much yet he happily did it himself with her without marriage? This is more about possessiveness than morals imo
I’m assuming the OP himself was not that practising as he was ok with a sexual relationship so what’s the difference? As someone else said why does she “owe” him virginity?