Is this true?

[psyah]

Re: Is this true?

@ZeeshanParvez

The Istigathaa Hadith is your example. All the Arabs understand it to be prohibitive. Here is another book معارج القبول بشرح سلم الوصول إلى علم الأصول](إسلام ويب - معارج القبول بشرح سلم الوصول إلى علم الأصول - شرح منظومة سلم الوصول - فصل تعريف العبادة وذكر بعض أنواعها وأن من صرف شيئا لغير الله فقد أشرك - من أنواع العبادة الاستغاثة به والذبح له- الجزء رقم2) which has a chapter on Istigathaa by Allah being a form of worship and uses and presents this Hadith exactly as mentioned in the posts.

If you want to find this rule I would suggest that book I gave you last time. W.Wright. I remember reading about this rule but you will have to find it in Volume 2.

Brother ZeeshanParvez

I’ve searched and searched and keep finding prohibition on mudaari’ with jussive verbs and references to negation is prevalent when the mudaari’ is mutaharrik. Both Volume 2 and Madinah book 3 say this … I understand that in various Sharh books they may “interpret” the above to prohibition but that would be interpretation and not translation.

Like I can say … “It is not from Islam to get angry quickly and remain like that” and I could interpret that to “We should not get angry quickly and remain in that state if we do” … But by translation the meaning is open for other understandings.

Certainly the Hadith being weak cannot be a criterion for ruling in Aqeedah and secondly until you show otherwise I don’t even read it’s direct translation as prohibition anyway.