psyah
January 17, 2012, 10:27pm
49
Re: Hazrat Isa A.S.
oh really. I am not interested in your twisted logic either. proof is there for the seeing eye.
This is news to me.Could you please substantiate your claim? I have more than dozen verses that usethis word to mean death. Even if you take it in more general terms, Quran takesit only in terms of Qabz-e-roh and never as Qabz-e-jism.
Just a wild thought,if ‘tawafee’ as applied to the case of Jesus(as) is ‘to be fully taken up’ whenhe was lifted alive with his body and spirit then during death or sleep whenonly roh is taken, do you think that it is a improper usage of ‘tawaffee’
Just for the sake of my knowledge, could you please tell me where did you get this translation of ‘tawaffee’ i.e., ‘to be taken up’? (btw,you omitted ‘fully’ from the meaning; intentionally or unintentionally?) pls do not quote from some contemporary biased dictionary.
Peace kchughtai
There is contention on this word … That is a fact … The proof however is not …I’m still waiting for the proof, you keep trying to divert my attention from the main question.