heres where you’re erring. even if they might have different positions in the scale, the fact that they can be motivated by similar causes (genes) means that I can use one’s assured immorality (murder) to point out that just having those causes doesnt imply anything as to its moral position.
Yes it does. In many cases it does. Those that are inconsequential to people around you and deal with an individual, they have no moral bearing whatsoever.
But in other cases where they are not inconsequential then it's a different matter.
see this argument is irrelevant as to its tendency coming from nature or nurture, and was made to argue for its morality before the gay gene was postulated, and would still be made if the gay gene were debunked. i dont wanna argue with this.
alls im saying is genetic tendencies do not impact the moral status of things. zero influence. if you consider them moral from before you will afterwards too, but then you already decided that. if you considered them immoral before, then you can consider it another immoral act that has genetic tendencies.
"alls im saying is genetic tendencies do not impact the moral status of things. zero influence. if you consider them moral from before you will afterwards too, but then you already decided that. if you considered them immoral before, then you can consider it another immoral act that has genetic tendencies."
That's exactly the kind of perception that needs to change. Looking at causes and consequences for moral or immoral point of view. That's not a defining factor. Sometimes tendicies may have moral consequences and sometimes may not. You can't just stick with one and find similiarities between different cases and measure on a scale.
i think you’re actually saying the same thing as me. i dont like the tendencies argument, you dont seem to either. Only at the end you believe that homosexuality isnt immoral whereas I maintain that it is. im ok with that.
No, that's not what I'm saying. What I'm saying is that if it's genetic tendencies in case of homosexuality (I'm sure there are varying degrees of its strength but let's assume the urges are very strong and a person has to live with it day to day basis for simplicity's sake) then that does not make a person "sick" or laible to "treatment". It only makes that person different. Because all he/she is doing is engaging in same-sex act in the privacy of his/her room.
Same thing with transvastites. What makes a man wear women's clothes? 'Cause he may have genetic tendencies that makes him relate to women instead of men? Well, if he is happy wearing those clothes then that's that. Nothing wrong with it and he does not need to go to a clinic to straighten up just 'cause in our book of morality it says he should. There shoul not be any moral consequences in this case.
One the other hand if it's the same case with murderer then either he needs to go treatment or jailed. There should be moral consequences in this case.
here, you've assumed that its a moral act to begin with, with reasons completely independent from the genes, and therefore you say it shouldnt be treated with therapy to counter the gene. we were debating whether or not the presence of a gay gene makes it moral, which clearly in your perspective it doesnt, because you argue for its morality independent from its possibly genetic origin.