I have heard numerous times from people that you do not need the first wife’s permission if you are to bring a new wife into the house (polygamy).
I’d like to bring this hadith to light that I never knew existed. Its a shame that people do not know of this:
Ali (R) was prevented from marrying a second wife by the Prophet himself, because Fatima (Ali’s first and only wife) was not comfortable with it.
**Hadith - Sahih Bukhari 7.157, Narrated Al Miswar bin Makhrama
I heard Allah’s Apostle who was on the pulpit, saying, “Banu Hisham bin Al-Mughira have requested me to allow them to marry their daughter to Ali bin Abu Talib, but I don’t give permission, and will not give permission unless 'Ali bin Abi Talib divorces my daughter in order to marry their daughter, because Fatima is a part of my body, and I hate what she hates to see, and what hurts her, hurts me.”**
This only makes sense. Why would Islam, which asks a man to be absolutely nice and considerate of his wife, tell a man that he can marry another woman without his first wife’s permission.
If polygamy under Islam is defined as a family unit - i.e. the man and all of his wive’s living as one whole family unit - then why would the first wife be left out of a decision that affects her?
Its not just about emotions. For example, a man might wish to marry another woman when finances just do not allow it. Doesn’t a woman have the right to be consulted about the decision, so that she can point this out to her husband? Or perhaps does Islam really not care for a female’s feelings when it comes to marriage?
That is what advocates of polygamy against the permission of the first wife are leading me to believe. But I refuse to believe that. A woman’s feelings and security are important. If you screw with that, you screw with the family unit and the family’s security.
I was very happy when I found this hadith, but also disappointed that people are going around claiming that women have no say in this decision when they clearly do.
If the second wife’s permission is needed for the marriage, as the first wife’s permission was needed for her own marriage, then why is the wife’s permission not needed when her husband wishes to marry another woman?