Did the Prophets before Mohammad (pbuh) drink?

Does the verse state drunkenness? The verse means that: under some instances the use of some alcohol might help in eleviating pain or sorrow or anguish. Nowadays people might get a sedative prescribed by a doctor, something the people of that day and age did not have. The verse does not mean that it is permissible to get drunk whenever there is sorrow, or anguish, or pain.

The Bible needs to be read and interpreted as a whole, and the use of isolated verses should be avoided. I quoted the verse to show that the Bible has no prohibition against alcohol. The whole Bible read as a whole does not have prohibition against alcohol use.