Why is he called Mohammed Iqbal in India while he is called Allama Iqbal in Pakistan?? Isn’t he the same guy who wrote “Sare Jahan se Achcha Hindostan Hamara”?? How did he suddenly gravitate to the other extreme of total-India-hatred and became a staunch proponent of the two-nation theory?
Is it something innate in all desis that their loyalty shifts here and there according to their interests?? How is it that the same person who waxed eloquent on how much he loved Hindostan wanted it to be torn apart into two just because a few riots (btw both Hindus and Muslims died in those riots)??
If you search deep into his history, his grandfather converted to Islam to escape persecution for a crime he had committed. Here’s the text:
**“Iqbal’s grandfather Shaikh Rafiq, was a Kashmiri Pandit named Sahaj Ram Sapru before his conversion to Islam and was a revenue collector. According to Dr R.K. Parimu, the author of “History of Muslim Rule in Kashmir” and Ram Nath Kak’s book Autumn Leaves, Shaikh Rafiq had embezzeled state funds, and when his guilt was established, the Afghan governor, Azim Khan, gave him the choice of death or conversion to Islam. Sahaj Ram Sapru chose life, and assuming new names, he and his family moved to Sialkot in the Panjab."
Your great great (X1000000000000000) grand father Qabeel killed his brother Habeel to marry the girl of his choice. Does it make you the partner in crime?
bhai u missed my point.. see how i bring in the concept of opportunism in desis by showing how it occurred in iqbal's khandan.. his granpa became muslim to evade punishment for his stealing.. iqbal himself vacillated between a united india and pakistan.. ab app usko kaise explain karenge??? boliye boliye
Yes, he is the one who wrote “saaray jahan sey acha hindustan humara” but we should remember that subcontinent at that time was referred to as Hindustan in urdu at that time. Mughals ruled over Hindustan, didn’t they? It was all part of Hindustan and he wrote it for his country as Francis Scott Key wrote for USA and so forth.
Questioning his shifting of loyalty is flawed because even according to his earlier poems, it is evident that he wanted a separate nation for Muslims and Hindus. Presentation of the two-nation theory was just its conclusion. It was a long term thought that ended with points now widely known as “do qaumi nazariya”.
then why glorify hindustan while he really wanted a separate homeland for muslims?? ur logic of francis scott key writing for usa doesnt sound relevant.. did he side with the confederacy while praising the union??? iqbal praised hindustan extensively while later he rooted for pakistan?? now isnt that a blatant shifting of loyalties???
please tell me why it was "oppurtunistic" of him. there was no political or intellectual mileage to be gained from demanding two countries. if anything he was shooting his career in the foot by advocating a theory of seperation when no significant political party or person had championed anything but united liberation from the british.
sure he wrote the 'saray jahan say acha' stuff, he didnt have malice towards his homeland. he merely saw that the residents of the land he loved couldnt live peacefully in one country. wheres the duality?
Hindustaan was his homeland, love for home is natural.
There is no shifting of loyalty as per facts. It is more of the cunning nature of Hindus which cause The Muslims to be more apprehensive of them. In 1857, Hindus and Muslims both took part in Ghadar, but after the defeat, Hindus practically laid all the blame on Muslims for mutiny and thus caused the harsh treatment from British rulers upon Muslims of subcontinent.
Its all part of history. If there is someone to blame for partition, it Must be Hindus. similarly for creation Bangladesh, people of West Pakistan (now Pakistan) were responsible
hey now dont twist my lines.. i didnt comment on the Quran.. i only said ur answer was irrelevant.. and dont try to silence me by quoting some random couplet from the Quran that doesn’t apply to my question
where is the proof for that?? dont just try to make speculations.. did u know that hindus and muslims both wanted to install Bahadur Shah Zafar as ruler of india?? why would they do that if their intentions were to betray muslims?? if u have something to say back it up with proof.. i supported my statements by providing links to official records.. if u cant do that please dont reply
Ok so he rooted for India first but changed his mind about it and rooted for Pakistan. What’s the big deal? Likewise Jinaah was in congress and worked with Hindus for a free India but then he changed parties and joined Muslim league and struggled for a separate land for Muslims.
