If a person gives away more than 2.5% of his zakaat-payable wealth through the year to poor who would be eligible for zakaat, without intending it as zakaat, come time to pay zakaat is he considered as already having paid it?
So suppose a person pays every month to sponser a poor Muslim, and then gave to help Muslims rendered poor by a natural disaster, and this come to more than 2.5% of his wealth, is he obliged to pay zakaat on top of that?
Re: Zakaat and intentions
i do not think it matters. As long as you have paid 2.5% of you income and property as zakat. Paying again is not required since you have already paid the required amount in portions.
Re: Zakaat and intentions
hmmm... I am not sure. The only thing that is begging me to think and find the answer through more better sources is the condition of Zakah - that is - to pay the amount on the wealth left untouched for an year.
Re: Zakaat and intentions
if by “**untouched amount” **you mean amount not spent on yourself, then i find it kinda strange. Because then people would just spent the "untouched amount" instead.
As far as i know: Zakat is calculated on your “income” and “property that you own, including Jewelry”.
Zakat Calculator:
http://www.soundvision.com/info/life/zakatcalc.asp
Re: Zakaat and intentions
zakat is 2.5% of the money that has remained with you (i.e. savings) over the period of a year....
whatever u pay off for sponsoring an orphan or helping for disaster without intention of zakat goes off as sadaqa....
you must have intention of doing the deed, as u know the famous hadith "innama alaamaalo bin-niyyaat"....
u fix for yourself one certain time in the year in which u see how much has been accumulated in your savings column and u give off the 2.5% of it....
for property and other things, there r other percentages that u have to pay....
but for that too, u shud have posession of the property for the whole year....