what i dont get is how can it be a military camp language and not have any serious cussing? did these soldiers say “mian zara maaf keejiyega” when they got their limbs chopped off at war? given that mongols didn’t even know anything about showering until they hit persia, this is quite a drastic change.
Urdu may started during Mongol invasions, but it transformed to this soft language after it passed through the hands of people like Ameer Khusro, Ghalib and the last Mughal (Shayari mai 100%, ladai main 0%).
Speaking of cussing Urdu has plenty of it,... some of it can be very crude indeed... words like Swine would be common on the battlefield... as well as "Namak Haram" "Habeese ke aulad" etc...
Speaking of cussing Urdu has plenty of it,... some of it can be very crude indeed... words like Swine would be common on the battlefield... as well as "Namak Haram" "Habeese ke aulad" etc...
queer you should watch drama 'Quddusi saheb ki bewah' to improve your Urdu vocabulary for cussing words.
hehe.. well those aren't really serious cusswords, you know. most languages have the standard ones - male and female anatomical parts, the ones connecting parental units with professions of ill-repute, and well.. pubic hair. i think most languages have that one as mandatory. but urdu is all brazilianed out, methinks.
well.. lol thing is, urdu pundits often claim all that isn't really urdu and is borrowed from punjabi and hindi. apparently urdu is only stuff that can be said with a limp wrist.
Hell they have yet to meet a Pathan urdu speaker.... trust me half the words they utter dont make sense to the best of us and the rest are clearly bad oaths... I'll let you find one of the more nasty tutors out there there must be some tabbaco chewing brethren left. God I loved that side of my fammily
I suppose Sindi is an Indus Valley Language as is Punjabi becuase both lie along the Indus Valley but I cant see Urdu or Pashto having that link...
Sorry I am confused. How can you link Sindhi/Punjabi with the language spoke in the Indus valley civilization? The Harappans were not "Aryans". The North Ind /pak languages are Indo-Aryan languages.
Pashto is and Iranian language which is a child system of Indo-Iranian Language. Indo-Iranian has 3 subdivisions:
1. Indo Aryan: Sanskrit, Punjabi, sindi etc
2. Iranian:Pashto and others
3. Nuristani
Indo-Iranian lang system itself is a child system of Indo-European Languages.
As far as I know , Urdu is classified as Indo-Aryan
Sorry for confussion, I realise your refereing to the actual Indus Valley Civilazation fo earlier times. Wheras me and Muqawee were talking about the actual languages spoken along the valley today. What the point we were making was that it would have been more likely for Punjabi or Sindhi to have been influenced by the Indus valley than Urdu as the people who settled the valley might have picked it up... whereas invaders are less likely to adopt a local language.
I suppose Sindi is an Indus Valley Language as is Punjabi becuase both lie along the Indus Valley but I cant see Urdu or Pashto having that link...
Pashto and baloch are different languages predominantly Iranian, and yes punjabi and Sindhi are Indus valley civilization languages. Urdu I am not sure but even that closely resembles punjabi and is basically Sanskrit plus turkish and Persian language. Besides I think it was developed in the court which means Delhi and that is basically Punjab again.
The script is distincly persian and the way it is spoken closely resembles persian,
This is not a good argument. Persian script is distinctly Arabic. Does it make Persian a Semitic language? English script is distinctly Latin. Does it make it a Romance language?
Script for Urdu was chosen after Muslims arrived speaking Persian language. But local people were already speaking various "prakrits" before the advent of Muslims and Persians.
Urdu is just one such prakrit which was spoken around Dehli.
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what makes it unique to the indus valley and if that were the case it would be universally spoken in the Indus Valley which it is not.
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Oh, I get it. I understand where you are coming from. :) sigh.
I think you are assuming that I am trying to say that Urdu is the language spoken by Indus Valley civilization. This is both true and false.
The language that Indus Valley people spoke was the mother language of Urdu. But not just Urdu. It was the mother language of Punjabi, Sindhi, Siraiki and Gujrati as well.
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It only emerged when the Mughals (Mongols) invaded persia and changed the Chagatai language to Persian and mixed it with Indian languages to create Urdu. Hindi is only different in the way its written most of the words are the same.
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No language which is lingua franca of millions of local people could emerge by someone artificially amalgamating it with other languages of his choice.
Fact is that people were already speaking a language (obviously) when Persian/Turkish speaking Mughals arrived. Since Persian was the language of the courts therefore Persian words were included in the local language in huge numbers. Just like French words were added in great number after Norman-French invasion.
This local language was later called 'Urdu'. But just because it was named 'Urdu' after Mughals arrived, does not mean that the language started only after it was named as such.
Urdu existed as a language before Muslims came, even though it was not called Urdu. This is the same as other languages like Punjabi and Sindhi. They also existed long before people started calling them Punjabi and Sindhi.
All these languages are thousands of years old languages.
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This is not a good argument. Persian script is distinctly Arabic. Does it make Persian a Semitic language? English script is distinctly Latin. Does it make it a Romance language?
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Actually you need to do more research, Persian script Inspired both Arabic and the Semitic languages. Jesus himself as well as most of the Judean people spoke Aramiac which was itlsef a Persian influenced Dialect. The Persian set the Jews free from Slavery remember Cyrus the Great?
Also this influence spread to Arabs from Mesopatamia remember Abrahamic faiths??? Abraham was himself proabaly a speaker of a Persian dialect since he left Ur in Iraq which was always a part of greater Persia.
And Yes English is definatley a latin inspired script and why when you write Urdu using latin script its called "Roman Urdu"
Urdu may have existed before Muslim arrival as a form of Hindi but its irrefutable that the invaders influenced its final form.
Please Khoji bhai your being riddiculous now as most of the posters agree and have allready established the main arguement. You have yet to bring any conclusive facts to the table and non of your arguements really make much sense.
Dear Faris, why don't you do one thing? If you don't like this discussion then just stop posting. There is no need to give me your "advice". :)
About Arabic script inspired by Persian: I don't see any need to talk about it at all. I actually gave two examples to prove what I said. One was about Persian/Arabic script and second about English/Roman script. Even if you disagree with first example, the second example stands.
And while you like to focus on examples, you had nothing to say about the main point.