Ok, I know a similar topic has been posted before ..
But I am still curious about a few things…
When is a man said to be impotent ??
Is it when he suffers from erectile dysfunction (that is when he cant get his manhood to “rise to the occasion”) or when he suffers from a loss of libido (that is when he just doesnt seem to find any occasion “worth rising to”). If its the latter then can a woman also be said to be impotent when they lose their libido (women are infact known to dramatically lose their desire at times like immediately after child birth etc.). Also, can a man be impotent despite strong libido (that is having the urge but not quite the stuff to take the plunge)…
Can someone calrify.. maybe our resident sexologist NYA can help…
[This message has been edited by Old Monk (edited July 01, 2001).]