All surahs begin with Bismillah except surah 9. What is the reasoning?
Edit: added websites
http://www.hti.umich.edu/k/koran/browse.html
http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/quran/
that is how Allah wished it to be....
ppl do try to explain it though by their own understanding....
i dont think the Prophet (saw) told his companions why it was the case and nor did i hear of an instance where the companions questioned the issue....
perhaps they thought it was a useless question to ask....
^^ thanks for your reply.
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ppl do try to explain it though by their own understanding....
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Can you provide some info on it. I am now more curious as to what the reasoning behind that could be.
the presented reasoning is that since surah tauba begins with harsh words againt kuffar and continues on against the hypocrites then it would not be correct to mention the name of allah as rehman and raheem because he is also al qahhar so thats why rehmaan ar araheem are not mentioned. wallah o alam. surah mohammad is also very hars against kuffar but it begins with bismillah, so the reasoning should have some evidence that i am not aware of, other learned people might be of better help, gupguppy any hadith in this regard?
^ No hadith directly from the Prophet (saw) that i know of. Allah knows best.
Two other opinions given in the commentaries include...
It was the habit of the Arabs in pre-Islamic times that when contracts were annulled in writing they would deliberately omit mention of Allah's name at the start of the document and the Qur'an followed this practice to alert the Arabs to the severity of what was being said
That disagreement arose after the death of the Prophet (saw) as to whether Al Anfal (8) and Tawbah (9) were one surah or two separate surahs. So the surahs were separated but without the bismillah in between. This is undoubtedly a weak opinion and leads to a whole new argument of whether the order in which the surahs are now arranged in the Qur'an is divinely ordained or whether the order arose from ijtihad and also whether the bismillah is a part of the surah etc. etc.
on a follow up to your post, is bismillah part of surah fatiha? some people say it is some say it is not. which side has strongest evidence?
TM and GG Thankyou very much for your help. Chap 8 and 9 disagreement issue makes the most logical sense.
I don't know whether this is related to the thread or not but can you also point me to the verses that were not really the verses but rather inder the spell of witches etc....
In other words were those verses in chap 9 or somewhere else?
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*Originally posted by ThandyMazaq: *
on a follow up to your post, is bismillah part of surah fatiha? some people say it is some say it is not. which side has strongest evidence?
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I dont know about other people but it is definitely verse 1
according to Pickthal, yusufali and shakir.
Edit: But I hear you, so it is not just surah 9 that doesnt begin but also surah 1 that doesnt begin with bismillah but incorporates it as verse 1.
Very interesting.
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*Originally posted by Verizon: *
I don't know whether this is related to the thread or not but can you also point me to the verses that were not really the verses but rather inder the spell of witches etc....
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what r u saying man?
I had heard that while Quran was being downloaded (couldnt come up with another word) to Prophet Mohammad (SAW). Some evil women (witches) put a spell prophet Mohammad (saw) and there are some verses that were either wrong or got twisted.
That is what I had heard. When I saw no Bismillah in Chap 9 I immediately thought maybe it was not verses bu a whole chapter and hence no Bismillah for Chap9. Well since that is not the case so I now wonder which verses were they (if there were any).
^ are you referring to the Satanic Verses story? That all has to do with Surah al Najm (53)
^^ I have heard of Satanic verses but I have not read the book. I am not referring to SV.
I had heard about some women casting a spell on Prophet Mohammad (SAW) and that caused some confusion on some verses. Now I dont know whether they are from Surah 53?
That is why I asked the question.
Satanic Verses isn't just a reference to Rushdie's book. It specifically refers to those verses the devil supposedly sought to interject into Surah al Najm about using idols as intercessors.
^^ Ok thats it. Thats what I was looking for. Thank you very much.
^ The best and most thorough refutation in English that i've read of the whole "satanic verses in Surah al Najm" thing is in the book 'Sirat Al-Nabi and the Orientalists' by Dr. Mohar Ali. He dedicates some fifteen pages to it if memory serves me right and looks at it both from the point of view of the authenticity of the chains of transmission through which the story has been related and also some contextual, linguistic and chronological arguments... three good refutations in Arabic are by Muhaddith Al Albani and his students Saleh Al Shami and Ali Al Halabi.
Does anyone know the history/background of when and how the surah was revealed? I heard its also known as surah baraat, where the Prophet (saw) received a revelation in the form of Sura Baraat from Allah, forbidding the so called 'muslims' from doing haraam acts around the kabaa. It was revealed out of anger, hence probably the reason bismillah is not used.
Re: Surah 9
read the meaning, tafsir and introduction to this chapter.
and maybe you will UNDERSTAND.
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*Originally posted by Verizon: *
I had heard that while Quran was being downloaded (couldnt come up with another word) to Prophet Mohammad (SAW). Some evil women (witches) put a spell prophet Mohammad (saw) and there are some verses that were either wrong or got twisted.
That is what I had heard. When I saw no Bismillah in Chap 9 I immediately thought maybe it was not verses bu a whole chapter and hence no Bismillah for Chap9. Well since that is not the case so I now wonder which verses were they (if there were any).
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It was a Jewish Man, by the name of Lebid who did magic.
Well the story you are looking for is about suras 113 and 114.
a brief refutation of the an najm story.
In setanic verses by salman rushdi, he talks about some ayat of Quran those were revealed in order to accept three of the most popular gods of the that time in mecca as to be superior or heavenly beings like angels or the god. Later on, those ayat were cancelled and it was said that those were not revealed through gibrail rather it was iblis(satan) who made up those ayat and the prophet(peace be upon him) at that time was not aware of it. How true is this? If there is some truth in this then please specify how much and I would appreciate a real story as to what really happened.
Answer :
Praise be to Allaah.
This is based on a false report. Ibn Katheer and others said:
There is no saheeh isnaad from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) concerning this report, which says that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) “recited Soorat al-Najm to the mushrikeen until he reached the verses (interpretation of the meaning) ‘Have you then considered Al‑Laat, and Al‑‘Uzzaa (two idols of the pagan Arabs), And Manaat (another idol of the pagan Arabs), the other third?’ [al-Najm 53:19-20 – interpretation of the meaning]. Then the Shaytaan put words into the mouth of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and he said: ‘they are the exalted gharaneeq, whose intercession is to be hoped for.’ The kuffaar were pleased with this praise of their three idols, so they prostrated.”
This report is undoubtedly false on a number of counts.
1. Its isnaad is very weak and is not saheeh.
2. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was infallible with regard to the conveying of his Message.
3. Even if this report was saheeh, for argument’s sake, the scholars have stated that it is to be understood as meaning that the Shaytaan caused the kuffaar to hear these words, not that he put them in the mouth of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), so they heard them from him.
See Ibn Katheer’s refutation of this in his tafseer of Soorat al-Hajj 22:52. And Allaah knows best.
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