Allah forgive me if im wrong. I was reading some of the forums. In Islam are men allowed to have female slaves as well as wives. I mean isnt that a sin to have intimate relationships outside marriage?
I also read that Prophet Mohammad (pbuh) also had slaves that he captured on the battle field.
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*Originally posted by mysticroseusa: *
I also read that Prophet Mohammad (pbuh) also had slaves that he captured on the battle field.
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This topic has been dealt with in grat detail. This is actually an accusation
so its not true?
no
where did this idea originate from.
i mean its weird because it totally goes againt what islam teaches us
Muhammad [s] married to a slave
And there are many ways from where it could have came into light. Everything you read is not Islam. I often quote this:
Prof. Zaghloul al-Naggar, professor of geology and Director of the London-based Markfield Institute of Higher Education, has rightly told IslamOnline that many Westerners - some of them homosexual - convert to Islaam in order to appeal to Islamic communities and spread sinful behavior among Muslims, thus shaking their belief. Naggar cited the example of Richard S. Burton, a British writer who wrote in his book “A Journey to Mecca” how he publicly converted to Islaam for ulterior motives rather than out of real faith. Naggar also referred to Turkish Jews who converted to Islaam to reach power in Turkey during the times of Muslim Caliphs
So be very, very carefull in what you hear and read : )
According to sunni and shia branches of islam, the answer is yes. Please see The quran, the hadith and the fiqh.
According to the submitters etc, no.
The quran talks about right hand possessed= slaves and maids. This is taken differently by different muslim sects. What counts is original interpretations of the quranic text and what we find in hadith and fiqh books and islamic sirah and historic accounts.
The prophet at the age of 53 married to Ayesha when she was only 6.
Then y is it forbidden today. i mean i think it should be forbidden because intimacy shouldnly be after one is married. are u sure Prophet (pbuh) did not marry them. I read before that he married the jewishe lady (peace be upon her). However, did he marry each one of them? otherwise (Allah forgive me) it is a sin in Islam.
Its not considered a sin, this was discussed earlier here http://www.gupistan.com/forums/showthread.php?s=&threadid=152709
Basically its allowed according to the Quran
023.006
YUSUFALI: Except with those joined to them in the marriage bond, or (the captives) whom their right hands possess,- for (in their case) they are free from blame,
PICKTHAL: Save from their wives or the (slaves) that their right hands possess, for then they are not blameworthy,
SHAKIR: Except before their mates or those whom their right hands possess, for they surely are not blameable,
Here are more links from that thread, IslamOnline and some answers from Islam QA
Historically it has been practiced by the Prophets, the companions of our Prophet :saw: and throughout islamic history until slavery was internationally abolished. Infact alot of the Caliphs (the Abasids and Ottomons especially), were sons of female concubines (slaves).
The reason it is forbidden today is because slavery no longer exists.
slavery is replaced by what now? wat is the alternative for extra-marital activities?
Wrong question right? :D
Islam does not forbid slavery but changing world order is forcing its own values on humanity. So it has become somewhat difficult if not impossible for muslims to continue slavery.
^
Islam abolished slavery by giving rights to the slaves and encouraging liberation of slaves....
also letting a slave free is one of the best and most rewarded deeds in Islam....
^
well said
Dear armughal and stupid idiot,
1) The quran allows slavery and there is no doubt about it, for that is the reason muslims had kep slaves. They kept slaves even after the prophet's death ie after the completion of the quran and what the prophet had to say about it as explanation.
2) Whatever is allowed by the quran cannot be made unlawful by any other islamic source eg hadith or foqh etc.
3) Slaves are set conditions for their freedom by their masters and the quran accepts those conditions. So anyone failing to meet those could not secure freedom.
These points clearly show that as far as islam is concerned slavery is legal and is not abolished at all. There is no verse in the quran forbidding slavery. Unless the quran forbids what it allows no other source can do so.
Had the quran forbiden slavery by its completion, the prophet had to tell people to let the existing slaves go and have no more slaves etc etc etc.
By leaving it upto people to deal with their slaves, islam has not shut the door to slavery. Such are the reasons that I stated above that islam does not forbid slavery but I am open to any evidences that you may have of which I may not be aware regarding abolishment of slavery.
As far enouragement or discouragement about something, just as divorce is discouraged but that does not make it unlawful or beating up of wife is discouraged but that does not make it unlawful likewise just because islam enourages people to let slaves go does not make slavery illegal or unlawful.
Regards and all the best.
you cant take slaves if other side is stronger
or able to defend
Some of Gordon’s research disputes the oft-repeated charge that racism did not play a part in Islamic slave society. While it is true that the Muslims of the Middle East took slaves of all colors and ethnicities, they considered white slaves more valuable than black ones and developed racist attitudes toward the darker skinned people.
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*Originally posted by MMughal: *
Dear armughal and stupid idiot,
1) The quran allows slavery and there is no doubt about it, for that is the reason muslims had kep slaves. They kept slaves even after the prophet's death ie after the completion of the quran and what the prophet had to say about it as explanation.
then why dont we see slaves in these days????
conditions were put for slaves such that the practice vanished slowly....
dont mention abe lincoln, muslim world had seen slavery abolished much earlier....
2) Whatever is allowed by the quran cannot be made unlawful by any other islamic source eg hadith or foqh etc.
slavery was not made unlawful, but as i am tired of repeating, such conditions were put forward that it automatically disappeared from society....
3) Slaves are set conditions for their freedom by their masters and the quran accepts those conditions. So anyone failing to meet those could not secure freedom.
i hope u can point out verses that deal with the matter cuz i failed to find them....
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