Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
hmmm…okay thanks for replying …now I know that abdullah b abbass[ra] is also considered authentic by 12er shias …but obviously not more than Ali[as]
furthermore as far as I know Zaydi shias dont consider mutah legal either
I will wait for someone to give the 12er viewpoint
btw do sunnis practice this marriage anywhere
Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
As far as from the reading I have picked couple of points which differs Misyar marriage from Mutah , such as the absence of a fixed time period for the contract . But still neither I recognize nor promote any type of Nikkah contract done with intention of doing it for some period of time ( either known or unknown) .
All such types of marriage(specially this misyar marriage) mostly talks about allowing it to married men so they don’t commit zina , what about married women , who were left behind ?
Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
^ a disciple of shaykh ninowy told me it is a bidah and zina
Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
thisis what i found closest to the shia answer to my question
but what remains unanswered did Imam Ali make mutah legal during his caliphate ?
http://www.answering-ansar.org/answers/mutah/en/chap6.php
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Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
Yes Ali bin Abi Talib [as] did believe in the legitimacy of Nikah al-Mutah so did the other members of Ahlulbayt [as] but as for you question as to whether Ameer al-Momineen Ali bin Abi Talib [as] promulgated the Hillat (ligitimacy) of Nikah al-Mutah in his riegn, then the broad answer is ‘no’ and there are several logical reasons to that. First being the fact that Umar (from his own opinion) had forbidden it for his followers while those who were not the followers of Umar still deemed it Halal since only Prophet has the right to make anything Halal or Haram. So Ali [as] didnt want to create an issue during his riegn since he was passing through a very crucial time. Amnyhow, the following tradition might make you understand the circumstances that prevented Ali bin Abi Talib [as] from official taking a stance against various things that the previous rulers had disturbed:
We read in the esteemed Shi’a work Rudhutul Kafi, Sermon of Al-Fatan wa Al-Bidah, page 59, published in Iran:
**"The Caliphs before me intentionally practiced such acts in which they went against Rasool Allah (saww). They broke the promises (which they made with Rasool) and changed the Sunnah of Rasool Allah (saww). If (today) I ask people to leave all these things (innovations) and restore things back to the way they were at the time of Rasulullah (s), my army shall rebel and abandon me, and I shall be left alone. All that shall remain turning to me shall be those Shi’a who recognise my virtues and rank. **
Then he further explained by giving some examples that: “If I return Fadak to the heirs of Fatima (as), and if I order to restore the “SA’a” (a unit for measuring wheat) of Rasool Allah (s). And if I return the properties, which were given by Rasool (s) to their original owners, and deny the decisions which were based on injustice (and tyranny), and snatch the women who were illegally taken by some people and return them to their husbands, and if I deny the (unjust) distribution of Fadak, and start giving the shares to every one equally (as were originally given by Rasool (s), but earlier caliphs started giving according to status), ?. and restore the condition of Khums of Rasool (saww), and to bring Masjid-e-Nabi to it’s original position, and to make “Mash alal Khaffin” haram, and to issue punishment (“Had”) for drinking “Nabeedh” (alcohol made out of barley), and give the fatwa for Mut’ah being Halaal, and start saying 5 Takbirs at funeral, and make it obligatory upon people to recite “Bismillah” loudly during Salat … and ask people to follow the Quranic and Sunnah way of giving Talaq, and ask people to give all the Sadaqat, and to restore the way of abulation, ghusal and Salah to it’s original form and time, and give back the fidya (which was unjustly taken) to Ahl-e-Najran, and return the slave girls of Ahle Faras, and ask people to return to Qur’an and Sunnah of Rasool (s), then all people will abandon me (and I will be left alone). I ordered people that they should only gather for Fardh (obligatory) prayers during Ramadhan, and told them that congregation (Jamah) in Nafal (i.e. Tarawih) is a Bidah (innovation) then all of these people started shouting that Sunnah of Hadhrat Umar has been changed.”
Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
^okay thats the shia point of view ,but in earlier historical works we do find that Ali [as] did not follow many things of the earlier caliphs ....infact isnt that the reason he was bypassed by abdur rehman[ra] in favor of uthman.
secondly uthman despite his promises did not follow the example of the first 2 caliphs so people revolted against him ....the people who insisted that he follow the example of umar[ra] and abubakr[ra] as well as that of the prophet [pbuh] were kharjites like hurqus b zuhair with whom Ali[as] and his supporters did eventually part ways.So to say that Ali[as] would have not enforced and revoked things he felt were innovations simply because of what people will say is a bit farfetched ...if we extend this example further why did he then remove corrupt governers muawiyah and other governers surely followers of umar[ra] would have been satisfied with him governing syria so "wisely"
example of fadak is understandable if Ali[as] forsake his claim to a property which was rightfully his is not unlike him, he made greater sacrifices for unity earlier.But matter of innovations in religion is different it was his job as the rightful imam to lead the ummah to the straight path whether they follow him or not is another thing...and it is doubtful whether Ali[as] was willing to sacrifice principles for political gain
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and start giving the shares to every one equally (as were originally given by Rasool (s), but earlier caliphs started giving according to status), ?.
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it was umar[ra] who following the principle of sabiqa distributed them differently Ali[as] like Prophet[pbuh] and abubakr[ra] distributed them equally infact that was major reason why nobles of iraq turned away from Ali[as]
it would be appreciated if sunni bros/sisters dont jump in and make this into a sectarian argument
Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
....So to say that Ali[as] would have not enforced and revoked things he felt were innovations simply because of what people will say is a bit farfetched ...But matter of innovations in religion is different it was his job as the rightful imam to lead the ummah to the straight path whether they follow him or not is another thing...
You see that whenever Imams of Ahlulbayt [as] kept silence that was mainly with the intention of causing bloodshed among the muslims, be it the sulf of Imam Hasan [as] or the ealier sacrifices by Ali bin Abi Talib [as]. You are right that his job as the rightful Imam was to lead the ummah to the straight path, and thats what he has been doing, it is not that he had accepted the innovations of the earlier caliphs rather he has always been telling the 'correct' ways 'to his followers' (followers in religious sense, who deemed him as Imam), so you cant say that he was not leading the people. Now as far as leading the 'followers of previous caliphs' who are 'then politically' following Ali 'deeming him fourth caliph' is concerned, these are tyhe people for whom the above cited sermon was given. Suppose if he had reinstated the actual rituals and had ablished the things introduced by the former claiphs, the result could have been:
a. People would have revolted agaisnt him, could have resulted in a mass bloodshed.
b. And despite the result 'a' , those followers would have not accepted the rulings of Ali [as] contradicting the rulings of the 'beloved' caliphs of the masses.
So, why not to avoid bloodshed and disturbance if those people 'had to' adhere to the teachings of their previous leaders in any case? I hope I have made my point clear.
Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
i have read alot abt mutah ,,,unable to paste that link as im not allowed by admin due to junior member.but i wud like u ppl to visist answeringansar.org whr u ll find comprehensive guide abt this topic.hopefuly u ppl wll find out this link n get some gr8 knowledge abt muttah.
What is Muttah, I have heard that it is a contract marriage between a man and a woman with the intention of divorce. It is done in certain circumstances. I think this is endorsed by the Shia sect of muslims.If any one knows more about this strange practise then please define and clarify. Thankyou.
What you are allowed to do and what you are able to do in life limits you. The sultans of the ottoman empire for example used to have hareems. Have four wives, divorce one of them, marry another, divorce her, then, marry the next, then divorce her, then mary the next, then divorce her and so on.
In Shi'ah Islam, it is haraam to marry a woman permanently, with the intention of divorce. But this is not the case within Sunni Islam and is exactly what many rich and prominent people in the history of Islam have been used to doing.
Temporary marraige has clear guidelines, and referrences from both Shi'ah and Sunni sources, including The Qur'an, to no. 1, prove it's legitimacy in the time of The Last Prophet Mohammed PBUH and no 2, prove that it was practiced by the companions of the prophet after his demise.
There is also evidence that the second Caliph Umar, banned this practice. His banning it therefore validifies that it had been practiced in the first place, otherwise the previous Caliph Abu Bakr would have been the one to place the 'ban' as it were, not him.
Someone put a post up earlier saying that there is no waiting period for temporary marraige for ladies and I would like to correct him upon this point to say that as far temporary marraiges which are of the sexual type, there is most definitely a waiting period, and this is what separates it from the claim that it is legalised prostitution.
Sex, having multiple wives, the permissability to marry both Christian and Jewish women, divorce and the remarrying of divorced women all have legitimacy in Islam. Only in Christianity is sex meant to be an 'original sin'. The amount of open options that the muslims have always had in allowing a halal way of dealing with their sexual nature is the very thing which made the catholics think that we were sexually promiscuous, in comparison to themselves of course.
It is possible to sometimes concoct possible examples, or even come up with actual examples as to how people will always abuse that which has been given to them as a gift. As the saying goes, 'give them an inch, and they'll take a mile'. For people who want to do that well God will eventually be the judge for them.
Repression of sexual activity however is the very thing that produces perversions within societies such as can be seen within catholic institutions, where the failure of monastic lifestyles have resulted in the sexual abuse of both boys and girls, by there own peers and of the same sex.
We can also unfortunately find these types of scenarios in the muslim world, where there have been stories of Mullahs abusing little boys for example. Someone some where, will have heard of such a story no doubt, and homosexuality and child abuse is not something that is alien to muslim societies.
My sense is that when people are unable to visualise a legitimate outlet for their carnal urges they are in danger of becoming 'perverted', to the point where some have lowered themselves, regrettably, to bestiality.
As we can see, with the Christian world today, the outburst emanating from it's compellingly strict roots have left many with absolutely no guidelines at all.
Although Islam is always portrayed as an oppressive faith, it infact today holds all the answers for a fair and just society and way of life.
It is merely upon us to try and visualise our options sensibly, responsibly and carefully, so that we don't end up allowing our own children to end up with Sikh and Hindu girlfriends for example, as a result of immersing them within the Bhangra Bollywood culture that so many have become hypnotised by.
Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
^ Is it still being practiced? And if yes then how?
Please refer to the link of chapter 6 in the following link. The scholars have enlightened on it in the light of Quran and various hadith’s in Sahih books.
http://www.al-islam.org/encyclopedia/
BTW, similar to nikkah a siga is also recited for Mutah.
Taboo, i wouldn’t nauzubillah compare prosititution with Mutah. Unlike Prosititution, the woman is well protected and any kids born from Mutah get inheritance from dad and so on. Mutah is quite similar to a normal marriage. Like the nikkah the guy and girl have to recite a siggah for the marriage. If a concept of temporary marriage is not acceptable in islam, why would the clause of divorce be allowed in islam to begin with? A guy and girl can marry each other share a halal relationship and than have a divorce.. divorce is acceptable in islam isnt it.
Now why is mutah allowed in islam, I would believe Allah knows the best, It was a practice introduced during the time of Prophet and was practiced during his lifetime.
Allah knows human… our bodies contiously produces harmones which controls our derive… wat if one cannnot find a mate or could not marry for some xyz reason. Allah knows the best .. it would prevent him from a sin. We cannot label a practiced allowed by Allah as nauzubillah prostitution.. Allah knows the best.. There are so many other things we do beacause they are halal and precribled in the religon. People making rounds of Kaba, or kissing hajjre aswad.. do you label any of the other deeds prescribed or allowed by Allah SWT?
Quran testified islam was perfect and complete at the time of Prophet P.B.U.H.
“Today I have perfected your religion and completed my favour upon you, and I was satisfied that Islam be your religion.” (Qur’an 5:3)
What right does Hazrat Umar has to rule out a practice halal during the time of Prophet Mohammad P.B.U.H.
Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
^LOL
If its so similar to normal marriage than why its there? why not just to have a normal marriage and divorce process.
But in the end answer to every religious conundrum is Allah knows best.
^LOL
If its so similar to normal marriage than why its there? why not just to have a normal marriage and divorce process.
But in the end answer to every religious conundrum is Allah knows best.
Wow what a great question Mr.......... Gotta compliment you on that...lol all you want Mr...but why don't you start by answering the questions below and than we'll try to sought answer for your question above....
Mashallah seh Allah gave you many blessings, why don't you ask Allah why goat and cow is halal... why not just goat they both taste almost the same???
Why you have problem just with Mutah and not the stuff I mentioned above... Please answer the questions above and than I'll try to ponder on your why?
^LOL
If its so similar to normal marriage than why its there? why not just to have a normal marriage and divorce process.
for the same reason Misyar marriage & Urfi marriage is there......among few differences one reason is tht u dont need a witness....
^LOL
If its so similar to normal marriage than why its there? why not just to have a normal marriage and divorce process.
But in the end answer to every religious conundrum is Allah knows best.
Have you ever seen the Nikah contract? It is a contract and every contract by definition has a termination clause and certain conditions attached to it.
I have a questions for you:
Do you even know what Mut'a is, its conditions and rights and obligations of parties involved? (Not from nasibi sites but from Shi'a sources.)
Once you answer my question, then I will be to explain accordingly.
I hope you will have the decency to either respond or concede with grace and not run away like others have on discussion of Imamat and Ahlul Bayt.
Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
^No dude, i don't know what are the clauses of it, nor i have seen one. I only know of a close friend of mine who has done one. He met the girl in a Mall, they dated each other couple of times, then went to a hotel, where the girl recited some things, he said "Qabiltu" for 1 hour , had fun and left. They used to talk occasionally on phone but then that stopped also.
Wow what a great question Mr.......... Gotta compliment you on that...lol all you want Mr...but why don't you start by answering the questions below and than we'll try to sought answer for your question above....
Mashallah seh Allah gave you many blessings, why don't you ask Allah why goat and cow is halal... why not just goat they both taste almost the same???
Why you have problem just with Mutah and not the stuff I mentioned above... Please answer the questions above and than I'll try to ponder on your why?
I don't know dude.
You tell me, since you know so much about religion.
Re: Shia Muslims Please Define Muttah
I think DD sahab you are unnecessarily provoking people here! This thread will go in to similar trend like others.
Why not ask question and get answers better ways.
At least respect this such an old thread......
^ Is it still being practiced? And if yes then how?
I think in form of misyar marriages.
What I understand here is Muttah is not unislamic practice. To say it is unislamic means sahabas performed unislamic practice.
As per Sunnis, it should be abolished with their arguments and as per Shia, it is still valid with their arguments.
As per Sunnis:
1- It was practiced at some time and then it was abolished by the prophet SAW which they quote a hadeeth and later as per Umer RAA where they quote his saying which mixed up with monkey meat prohibition.
2- It has many disadvantages of being abused these days and they consider it as fitnah to promote sexual in-discrimination.
As per Shia:
1- It is proscribed in Surah Nisa verse 24. (Sunni interpret it differently by saying it is about real marriage but not about Muttaul Nikah) Sunni also say the verse had one condition...not for fornication purpose but for chastity, for which sunni think Muttah is about fornication or sexual purpose hence not a good practice.
2- Shia say it has wisdom if practiced accordingly. It reduces the chance of fornication or indiscriminate sexual activities or desires.
3- For them the practice should be performed accordingly as proscribed or allowed.
4- They do not agree with Umer RAA decision. They say if it was not being practiced then why stop it? Their argument is that it was still being practiced during Siddique RAA time and he did not stop it.??
They also say, Ali RAA did not agree with Umer RAA. They do not believe of the prophet SAA prohibitory hadith which said I allowed you only for a short period, and don't do it now. Was it Tabuk during which he allowed temporarily?
5- Somewhere their argument has different interpretation from Sunnis about abolition of Muttaul Hajj but not Muttaul Nikah, I do not remember.
Now
a-Muttah is not for married men who are living with their wives.
b-It is not for unmarried men or women who could otherwise be married.
c-It is not without responsibilities similar to regular marriage like dowry, responsibilities of offspring or perhaps laws of inheritance.
d-It is time limited as agreed upon.
So to my understanding, it could be for hours, days, months or years....?
But it can be converted in to regular timeless marriage if they decide to.
e-It does not require witnesses.
f- It also requires Iddat. Which separates it from prostitution as some of above reasons.
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Am I correct in my understanding??????**