This is a provision that all the great Muslim rulers availed themselves of. They often had harems fill with dozens, even hundreds of women, of whom they would have nikkah with 4 and the remainder would be their concubines - legally speaking, their slaves.
It wouldn’t be blasphemy. I don’t know the actual facts but considering Hazrat Maria was his slave, according to the Qur’an sex with her would have been perfectly legal.
I believe that all the religions are product of their time and place. And if you follow the history and learn the politics of that time then you would know why each and every line in the religious texts was written. There can be something very noble , ingenious and wise written in holy books but by no stretch of imagination it is divine.
but i know it is not a easy discussion and a lot of people are not ready for it. people confuse this with atheist-believer argument.
I agree there cannot be a rational discussion on this matter and most of the people take a hide-in-a-shell and close-your-eyes approach. Especially it is not possible to have a good meaningful discussion on a bulletin board like this. so i will stop here before anyone’s feelings get hurt as it is not my intention.
Nikah is nothing more than a public announcement (with minimum of 2 people present) to announce your intention to have a sex partner. Slavery can be considered the same way. The only difference in slavery based and nikah based sex is maybe the consent of the other party is not required in the former scenario. As non-human as it sounds, it was the cost-of-war in those days and both sides had this understating that once they get into the war with each other, it could result in their people becoming slave of the victorious party
Yeah that’s the thing, in Islam the treatment of slaves is completely different from what you would expect of slaves in the traditional sense of the word.
the slave women would need to consent, you are not allowed to be violent in anyway to a slave, rape is violent (one assumes you would need to hold down the victim, maybe beat them into submission).
There is a hadees, not sure which one about a slave owner that flicked the ear of one of his slaves, then he asked the slave to strike him so he would not suffer punishment on the day of judgment for flicking his ear.
That is what I thought too Unos. But to quote from the article I just posted, as a Muslim this should be enough for me:
My common sense tells me slavery isn’t right but I guess in terms of religion using common sense sometimes is not the best idea. If there is a provision for allowing slavery in Islam we have to accept that as Muslims.
I don’t know, no one does but these were “divine” revelations. The point is that this verse is still in the Quran, and people recite it in their prayers. Every Ramadan it’s recited in the Taraweeh. Why is it still in the Quran and what was the purpose of it for being in there anyway?
I dont know which verse you are referring to but there are Ayat in quran that are jaari (urdu word meaning on-going) in qirat but not valid in ehkaam (ruling) anymore. Every single part of quran is not a valid shariyat, there is a concept of Naasikh/mansookh that comes in play when Quran is used as the book of law and used to formulate rulings of shariyat.