Tamil, a Dravidian language was the precursor of Sanskrit. Most of the other languages came from Sanskrit.
I am not sure that it can be proved. It is a suggested hypothesis by a section of the scholars.
The Elamo-Dravidian languages are a hypothesised language family which links the living or proto Dravidian languages of India to the extinct Elamite of ancient Elam (present day southwestern Iran). The Elamo-Dravidian hypothesis proposes that the extinct Harappan language (the language or languages of the Indus Valley Civilization) may also be part of the same family. The Dravidian impact on the syntax of Indo-Aryan languages is considered far greater than the Indo-Aryan impact on Dravidian grammar. See the last para of my post #16
The elamite language according to available records was last spoken around the time of Alexander .
Naksh e rustam of Darius:
Darius the King says:* By the favor of Ahuramazda these are the countries which I seized outside of Persia; I ruled over them; they bore tribute to me; what was said to them by me, that they did; my law – that held them firm; Media, Elam, Parthia, Aria, Bactria, Sogdiana, Chorasmia, Drangiana, Arachosia, Sattagydia, **Gandara, Sind, *Amyrgian Scythians, Scythians with pointed caps, Babylonia, Assyria, Arabia, Egypt, Armenia, Cappadocia, Sardis, Ionia, Scythians who are across the sea, Skudra, petasos-wearing Ionians, Libyans, Ethiopians, men of Maka, Carians.
let me tell you most of the translations done in english doesn't always have same meaning in sanskrit,this words must be coincidence
AFAIK modern day persian language doesn't sound nothing like sanskrit, where as modern day south indian language like telugu sound close to sanskrit especially those long words
Babloos, I am sure modern day persian is far removed from Sanskrit, but it has been proved by linguists that ancient Avestan language or Iran (of Zoroastrians) and rig vedic Sanskrit was very similar.
Babloos, I am sure modern day persian is far removed from Sanskrit, but it has been proved by linguists that ancient Avestan language or Iran (of Zoroastrians) and rig vedic Sanskrit was very similar.
if the languages are similar why do people look deffererent unlike europeans or arabs
either Ancient persians were defferent race or Aryan invasion theory is correct
if the languages are similar why do people look deffererent unlike europeans or arabs
either Ancient persians were defferent race or Aryan invasion theory is correct
In the areas forming sub continent, many invasions have taken place and most of the invaders adopted of the culture, inter married with locals and stuff. Different kind of people can be found especially in the areas forming Pakistan now.
if the languages are similar why do people look deffererent unlike europeans or arabs
either Ancient persians were defferent race or Aryan invasion theory is correct
People look different because of mixed ancestry. Different tribes have migrated/invaded the subcontinent and made it home by adopting the local languages and religions. Take a small example : The white huns (Hephtalites) were of central Asian origin. Hephthalites are believed to be among the ancestors of modern-day Pashtuns. They settled in present day Afghanistan where they adopted the dominant religion and language of that time (hinduism and Buddhism). The last Hephthalite King, Yudhishthira (notice the name, it sounds Hindu), ruled until about 670, when he was replaced by the Turk Shahi dynasty. The Shahi rulers of Kapisa/Kabul who ruled Afghanistan from early 4th century till AD 870 were possibly Hindu Kshatriyas. Folklore accounts recorded by Alberuni connect the earlier Shahis of Kabul/Kapisa to Turkish extraction. Alberuni says that "the Hindu kings residing in Kabul were Turks". How is this possible unless the rulers adopted the local customs and religions. So you cannot use race to prove origin of language
Another small example , I have migrated to the US, I speak Hindi at home and I teach my kids Hindi. But eventhough, my kids may speak Hindi at home, they will be more comfortable with English. Maybe 3 generations later everybody will be speaking english in the family because that is the dominant language in the US and Hindi forgotten/ not learned by the great grand kids even though the family is of Indian origin
A few invaders that we have seen include Persians, scythians, white huns, sakas, mongols, central Asians, Greek, British and Arab. So many invasions that once I listed at least one invasion in one century. Most of these people adopted the cultures and inter married.
During 300 to 1000 AD there was a Kabul based government consisting of parts of Afghanistan, and current pakistan’s KP and Punjab called Hindu Shahi. Around 1000 ad Muslims started invading from Afghanistan.
This is the map of Hindushahi/Kabul shahi kingdom.
Interesting thing to note from the past 2500 years of the history of the area forming Pakistan, and Northern India is that they have mostly remained parts of Persian and Central Asian (Afghanistan based) governments. The invaders remained the same (from Persia or Central Asia), till 1000 AD they used to be hindus/budhists and later they were muslims.
Interesting thing to note from the past 2500 years of the history of the area forming Pakistan, and Northern India is that they have mostly remained parts of Persian and Central Asian (Afghanistan based) governments. The invaders remained the same (from Persia or Central Asia), till 1000 AD they used to be hindus/budhists and later they were muslims.
Yes. But the invaders and rulers left the local languages and sanskrit alone which contributed a lot to their development . It was only during the Mughal rule that persian was made the only Court language forcing the educated elite to learn the language for administrative purposes. Many muslim settlers during the mughal era were also mostly from persia and they spoke persian. But I doubt that majority of the native population esp in N and Central India spoke persian in the day to day lives. A few words may have been added here and there but persian influence on hindusthani or Urdu was due to the muslims as previously discussed.
^ Well as you have mentioned that the effect of Persian was mostly due to the moghuls enforcing it as a language of the court, but otherwise the rulers in most of the areas have always been persians and afghanistan based (dari is also a form of persian) there fore I think the influence of persian on sanskrit and vice versa is quite old.
Considering the history of the past 2500 years, we can see that most of the invasions in the area (of Pakistan and North India) have taken place through the North West, so any invasion that might have taken place would be through Afghanistan. A central Asian or Persian invasion is possible (and that can explain the similarities between early sansksrit and persian) as opposed to the European invasion that the west tries to portray it as.
^ Well as you have mentioned that the effect of Persian was mostly due to the moghuls enforcing it as a language of the court, but otherwise the rulers in most of the areas have always been persians and afghanistan based (dari is also a form of persian) there fore I think the influence of persian on sanskrit and vice versa is quite old.
Not Persian per se. It was more specifically Avestan language of Iran which was similar to Sanskrit. May be persian influenced the currently spoken languages of Afghanistan like Dari. But I have ho idea about the similarities between Dari and Sanskrit and if there was any influence there unlike other languages like Sindhi, Punjabi , Hindi etc which can claim a direct Sanskrit ancestry but not persian ancestry. I think Balochi is the barrier between Sanskrit influence and Persian influence. Balochi and Sanskrit both influenced Sindhi and Balochi is a language more similar to kurdish. Hindko on the other hand was more influenced by Sanskrit and is believed to be closely related to Prakrit.
Even Kashmiri which is a Dardic language shows strong links to Rigvedic Sanskrit. Basically Kashmiri has thousands of loan words (mainly from Persian and Urdu etc.) due to the arrival of Islam in the Valley, however, it remains basically an Indo-Aryan language close to Rigvedic Sanskrit. There is a minor difference between the Kashmiri spoken by a Hindu and a Muslim. Example: For 'fire', a traditional Hindu will use the word agun while a Muslim more often will use the Arabic word nar.
Brahui is ofcourse dravidian in origin. I don't know anything about shina except that it is a dardic language so no comment there.
The Pashtuns are the Pakhta tribes mentioned in Rig veda in Sanskrit and they were hindu/buddhist till the 8-10 centuries. Pashto today may have been more influenced by persian after conversion of Pashto speaking people to Islam . The sentence construction of Pashto is similar to Prakrit and unlike Persian which implies some language metamorphosis has taken place in the last millenium.
Hindko, Punjabi, Pahari, Potohari etc are essentially dialects of the same language. Seraiki is similar, but it has similarities with Punjabi and Sindhi.
@calypsodc, in which areas of India have the sites of Indus valley civilization been discovered and what was the approximate area which was under the influence of the civilization?
Another thing I have remembered, the civilization that is considered to be the precursor to the Indus valley civilization was Mehrgarh (in present Balochistan 7000 to 5500 BC).
Hindko, Punjabi, Pahari, Potohari etc are essentially dialects of the same language. Seraiki is similar, but it has similarities with Punjabi and Sindhi.
Punjabi, Sindhi and seraiki are connected. Few years ago i could not understand Sindhi at all, later when a learned bit of seraiki, i can now understand sindhi a lot better.
