We (knowingly/unknowingly) take guidance from Religion. For quite a while I have formed ‘an interpretation’ of Quaranic verse, part of my judgement. But I’ve seen some clear conflicting situations.
Surat An-Nur - The Noble Qur’an - ??? ???
“The fornicator does not marry except a [female] fornicator or polytheist, and none marries her except a fornicator or a polytheist, and that has been made unlawful to the believers.”
My interpretation was “Men/Women who commit to Fornication get the same kind of men/women in marriage” and my deduction was “Men/Women who save themselves for marriage get same (Virgin) Men/Women”
While experiencing alot of conflicts in general, there was a recent conflicting scenario:
A guy we knew for fact who was in secret relationships with many women got married to a girl. A girl we knew for the fact was saving herself for marriage.
Now there are two possibilites:
Interpretation is correct: Girl had also commited fornication, but we didn’t knew.
Deduction is Wrong: Even if we save ourselves, there is no guarantee, that we will get pure virgin men/women.
The translation is obscure which is why you are getting confused.
A better way to understand it is as so:
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A male fornicator is not produced except by relations with a female fornicator or female polytheist.
A female fornicator is not produced except by relations with a male fornicator or male polytheist.
That (i.e. to be a fornicator) is made unlawful for the believers.
This means to have permissible relations one must be in nikkah ... and that no nikkah is valid with a polytheist.
These verses are not describing an act of qadr or deduction ... They are merely describing a law to be followed by the believers by first providing the definition of a fornicator.
If a male is a fornicator and he marries (has nikkah) with a female and they are both Muslim then when they engage in relations with each other - those relations are halal. If he fornicates with other females then those acts are impermissible and they have no bearing on his actual wife.
Is there a way in Islam so that Pious one can guarantee a Pious (Virgin) partner ?
This is not a question about Islam - it is a question about forensics and quite honestly it requires certain things that are wrong. The only way is to closely monitor their lives and not let them out of your sight. In the past with Judaism and in some societies today they do a ceremony to prove a virgin by sending the father with a cloth and get the blood of her hymen on it.
The real solution is not to have such a requirement for proof, but there are other ways to ascertain piety ... of course nothing is 100% guarantee. Getting your money back is not good enough because then the pious person becomes "used" as well. It is a slippery road to go down if you want perfection. It may only come with chance.
Many people repent and if Allah (SWT) wipes their slate clean then so should others.
Piety is about how you live yourself - it does not extend beyond you and it does not harm you if somebody else is impious - except when it comes to the spread of disease. In this case it might be good to get a medical examination - blood test to see if there are any STDs. But quite honestly just by talking to someone it is quite easy to work out that the blood test is not even needed.
It's like asking can anyone guarantee a good marriage? No - no one can guarantee that. Two people go into a contract with trust and when the trust is broken there are rulings in place designed to protect people from the ongoing harm, but not the initial harm.
What if the person was divorced or a widow? Not impious but "used" - so you see it can be a lot to ask for. One good way is to marry young. When both of the couple are young the chances are less likely they have been subjected to the touch of the other gender.