The train of thought is not really difficult:
a) Xe is a militant outfit known to commit atrocities
Thats not their modus ope*****. They are a security company designed to provide security to VIP, diplomats. Their only instance of atrocities. They were throughlly invetigated, the Hadita massacare.
b) Suggestion is that they are taking part of counter-insugancy operations
But there is no proof of that, just allegations. Find me some concrete proof.
c) Such operations are not really done out in the open
And thus negates your whole point. Since you don't know what they are doing, you are letting your imagination run wild.
Absence of proof is not proof of absence.
In a court of law, a case without proof is dismissed.
Now, be a dear and tell me how my original claim, (that this is "plausible", given the history of Xe), is somehow absurd compared to your flippant "can't happen" stance.
Because in 2004, there was no oversight over these companies which led to the Haditha Massacare. Now there is. Even Xe has said they only have 1 employee in Pakistan.
I think Xe and other Security companies have become the new Jews, Hindus, Zionists and other boogey man to Pakistanis willing to blame all the ills of their country on them.
You're point regarding applying this illogic to Muslims is moot, not to mention malformed; you're the one exercising this reasonin, not myself. To put it in simpler terms, are you prepared to extend this weak reasoning to terrorist activites with plausible denial?
Since Xe is not a terrorist organization, any allegations against them, they will be given the benefit of the doubt. Not to groups like Al Qaeda or TTP.
To spell it out even more clearly for those who have issues with comprehension, if there is denial of involvement in particular attacks blamed on terrorists, will one demand proof, or rely on past history of terrorists?
Since the only past history of Xe was one incident...I much rather take the track record of Xe over TTP or Al Qaeda.
Or can I twist the logic and apply it to Pakistan Army.
Since Pakistan Army committed crimes in Bangladesh in 1971, and thus can I deduce that they still are?
Or when Zia and Pakistani Trainers fought with Jordanian forces in 1970 agaisnt Palestinians, can I deduce that Pakistani Army is Anti-Palestinian?
Or when Germans committed crimes during World War II, can I deduce that they are still doing so?
Your logic hasn't gotten a leg to stand on.