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[This message has been edited by CM (edited June 05, 2002).]
Dear CM, your opening message is not very appealing... and does not speak well of muslims. I would requestly to kindly moderate your language, because if you feel are you are representing muslims I find that it insults me.
I am very curious about your idea that divorce is only permissible if unfaithfulness can be proven...
First, the punishment for unfaithfulness is quite clear.
Second divorce can be requested because of incompatibility. I do not think unfaithfulness is really contempleted.
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[This message has been edited by CM (edited June 05, 2002).]
CM, you are the man!
You have written some really tight remarks.
Anyways, there is also the issue of divorce when there are constant fights and everything has been done between the two parties to resolve this issue, including arbritation, then, even though most hated in the sight of allah (Swt), a divorce could take place. For reference, read the book the Sheikh Yusuf Qaradawi:halal & haram in Islam.
I agree with all other points you have posted and it seems like you and I have the same sort of thinking, yet I am not too vocal about cussing out these people due to the integrity that we have to keep as being Muslims.
wa'salaam.
CM,
Thank you very much for this post. It has provided me with answers to alot of questions I had in my mind about Talaq.
Sadly not everybody adheres to these rules. However there is one question I would like to ask. Is it possible for a woman to divorce her husband if he marries again, even with her consent?????
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[This message has been edited by CM (edited June 05, 2002).]
Husain,
as you said divorce can be granted because of incompatibility.I have also read this, cant remeber wher though. Like CM I would be grateful if you could provide any direction towards the source.
Shukria
Designer....
You are asking if it is possible for a woman to divorce (seek khula) from her husband if he marry's a 2nd, 3rd ora 4th wife even with her consent ?
If that is your question then the answer is NO. That is not a valid reason for divorce from a husband...
I dont think that any woman would like to share her husband with another woman so, that would result in all the woman's divorcing all of their husbands just cuz they are within the boundaries of Islam and not going against the teaching os Islam. That would just mess up the whole system on marraige.
The answer is NO.
CM
Could you point out the'drivel that is mentioned on this site to me, Ya'ar?
If the truth about the Islam being practised sounds like 'drivel' that is because, it is DRIVEL.
The biggest example of this 'drivel' can be found in your post itself where you claim that the only ground for Talaq is "Unfaithfulness or Adultery". But the penalty for Adultery is Death; so, if either of the party is going to get his/her head bashed in by the act of stoning then there will be no need for Talaq; now, will there?
So, if there is no need for Talaq because the party to it is now deceased due to his/her head getting bashed in; there is no need for all those provisions that you outlined for your entertainment; now, is there?
I noticed the Wahabi cheering squad is here!
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[This message has been edited by CM (edited June 05, 2002).]
CM
I do not insult the Quran or Authentic hadiths! I, most certainly, INSULT the 1,300 year old sharia laws that most muslim idiots think are forever and, proudly quote from it.
These laws are DRIVEL! Here CM - I said that agin!
I already showed you, in my post above, the ERRORS that only UNFAITHFULNESS or ADULTERY is the only reason for DIVORCE. The penalty for Adultery is Death so where would be the need for divorce? You ask me to read Sura #4 for answer! What answer? Again, do not look for answer where there is NONE!
How many of the poor, uneducated and helpless women accuse their husbands of being UNfaithfull and ask for Divorce? How about some statistics? What would be their fate if they did so?
Finally, if Islam is ever to realize its destiny then, the only way is by GETTING RID of these 1,300 year old laws - called Sharia.
[This message has been edited by logical (edited June 09, 2000).]
Logical,
Are not the laws of Shariah derived from the Quran and the Hadiths? The Quran is the main basis of the Shariah while the sunnah of the Nabi (SAW) provide the details fo their application. Shariah's purpose and importance lies in the fact that they allow man to develop a 'civilization', one which creates a suitable environment – political, social, economic, cultural, and material – that will enable man to direct himself toward the worship of Allah SWT alone and to adhere strictly to His commandments in all his activities, unimpeded by the institutions of society. The Shariah ensures that these institutions not be permitted to cause any contradiction between religious belief and conduct, and ensures also that the society not put pressure on anyone to deviate from his/her obligations toward Allah.
I mean, no matter how advanced a civilization may be in its sciences, literature and arts; no matter how colorful its achievements in architecture, furniture, clothing, and cuisine; no matter how far a civilization has advanced in material progress; it still remains “backward” and “deficient” so long as it falls short of creating an environment appropriate to the worship of Allah SWT and the observance of His commandments. And afterall are not the commandments of Allah SWT embodied in the Shariah? I'm going to quote from Yusuf al-Qaradawi's book here, "The Islamic Shariah removes from human beings harmful, burdensome customs and superstitions, aiming to simplify and ease the business of day to day living. Its principles are designed to protect man from evil and benefit everyone in the community--the rich and the poor, the rulers and the ruled, the men and the women--as well as to benefit the whole of humanity throughout the earth in various countries and climes, with its multitude of groupings, and in every period of time thoughout succeeding generations."
Logical, u said:
'How many of the poor, uneducated and helpless women accuse their husbands of being UNfaithfull and ask for Divorce? How about some statistics? What would be their fate if they did so?'
I am not denying the existence of such situations, but you cannot blame them on Islam or Islamic Shariah. The Shariah contains instructions for every aspect of life; aiming towards the success and welfare of mankind in this life and the hereafter. Logic, we all know the statistics, and we know the usual calamities and fates that befall the women you are referring to, but I ask you to study the Shariah and try to find anything that condones the latter practices. These practices are not the result of Islam, they arise from the prevalent cultures of those regions. Dominant, it could almost be said, to the culture of Islam, despite the fact that the people of those regions may profess a belief in Islam. For Islam and Islamic culture are one and the same, one who pursues Islam will maintain an Islamic attitude towards life and thus develop an 'Islamic culture', by that i mean that whatever there is in his/her own culture that is unfavourable in Islam will be discarded, and that which is permissible will be retained, thus the development of Islamic culture.
[This message has been edited by Girl from Quraysh (edited June 09, 2000).]
To all wahabiyas and their scholars (dead & alive) pls refer to the new thread:ARE SHARIA LAWS ANTI-ALLAH?
CM- Remember you have to answer/clarify re: TALAQ which you so arrogantly brought up!
oops nearly posted message twice.
[This message has been edited by desi larki (edited June 12, 2000).]
whilst still on the subject of talaqs, but from a slightly different angle 2 wat u guys are discussing. what is the islamic option 4 a woman who wants 2 get a divorce but her husband refuses 2 give it, the grounds are without getting into the nitty gritty, simply that they are incompatible, and the wife refuses 2 live with him again(the reasons are aplenty and clear 2 see 4 all involved)anyway 2 make things even more mushkil, the wife is abroad and the shohar is in pk. he says she will be dammned 4 eva if she gets a talaq, but anyway is it possible 2 get a islamic div from abroad in pk? and i thought a khula was a talaq iniated from the wifes side, is it still practised and would that b more appropiate ? any advice would be welcome.
http://www3.pak.org/gupshup/confused.gif
Desi Larki,
Don’t know if you are serious!
The 1st. link talks about Khula divorce and, the second where an arab divorced her wife via e-mail! Fits your scenario, somehow!
CAN A MUSLIM WOMAN DIVORCE HER HUSBAND? http://www3.pak.org/gupshup/Forum13/HTML/000987.html
DIVORCE by e-mail ! http://www3.pak.org/gupshup/Forum13/HTML/000981.html
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[This message has been edited by CM (edited June 05, 2002).]
And could you answer my question about your sect and why you hate wahabis??
b/c he is sectarian sh** stirrer my friend. It’s as simple as that
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[This message has been edited by CM (edited June 05, 2002).]
CM
The last I saw Logical was when he said he was going for a 'piss'; he hasn't shown his face since then!
I wonder if he got drowned in his piss!