What is the definition of Dar-ul-Harb? And which countries today constitute as Dar-ul-Harb?
Any insight?
Ahamadjee I'll bite. I do not know arabic and I barely know religion. You probably already know this.
When Muslims were expanding their sphere of influence and conqueroring various lands there were wars beyond the boundaries of Muslim lands. So the lands where muslim rule prevailed was known as Dar-ul-Islam and the lands where Kufr ruled and with whom there was conflict was known as the house of conflict or Dar-ul-Harb. A lot of the scholars of the middle east declared some years ago that there should be another classification of "house of order" ( I don't remember the arabic equivalent of it; it was Dar-ul- something). They put India in that category because muslims in Inida are allowed to adjudicate their civil matters under "Islamic law".
These days most of the west would fall under Dar-ul-harb for the simple matter that muslims here are not adjudicated by Islamic law but by a uniform civil law. For example, in another thread there was a matter of whether muslim men are allowed to 'lightly beat' their disobediant wives. Islamic law permits that ( I think ), but the civil law would charge the muslim man with battery; that is a conflict. Again islamic law permits a muslim man to have four wives under certain conditions while the law in west prohibits that under all circumstances; another conflict. As I understand in India muslim man is allowed to have four wives and are allowed to beat their wives as long as there is no residual visible evidence, like black eyes, scarring, etc. Indians on this site can correct me if I am wrong.
There was a case a few years ago where there were protests that Old arab men were coming and marrying below age girls in hyderabad. They were then taking them to the middle east and divorcing them fairly quickly. Poor parents were accepting the money up front knowing that their girls would end up in a sad situation. People wanted it stopped, but some authority (I don't remember whcih one but it was some Muslim organisation) ruled that it was permissable as long as the girls were having their mensturation. Indian courts accepted that and the practice still goes on as far as I know.
OldLahori, Thanks!
Would you by any chance know from where are these rules derived? Quran? Sunnah? Hadiths? Which ones ... it will be great to get references!
What is the significance of this classification (dar-ul-Islam and dar-ul-harb)? And what about the countries where all the laws are not Islamic?
Heck if I know!! But take a look at the thread:
http://www.gupistan.com/forums/showthread.php?s=&threadid=70061
I do know that Ayub had restricted polygamy quite a bit and many many complained. Then Zia removed all the restrictions because they were considered unislamic. As I told you, I am an ignoramus about the fine points of islamic law.
OldLahori,
The question though was directed at you, I was kinda informing all other who would be interested in taking part in this discussion that they need to back up their claims a little. :)
My apologies ahamadjee. I am posting a few links that cover some material I mentioned above. However, they do not go into who came up with the classification and on what basis.
Immigrant American Muslims and the Moral Dilemmas of Citizenship
http://www.islamfortoday.com/khan04.htm
Fiqh rulings on “land of war” or “dar-ul-harb”
How Does Islam Classify Lands?
OldLahori,
Thank you for the links. I browsed them through but they are similar to a few that I surfed through before. I have read some that categorize countries like Turkey as Darul-Harab.
I understand its a question of Fiqh but Fiqh in essence is derived from Quran/Sunnah/Hadiths. If you come across any that explain from where such definitions were derived from, then please do share.