dear i qadeer,
the definitions i posted were taken directly from the case against the ahmedis, and well yes, the ulema WERE asked the question exlclusively in relation to whether the ahmedis are muslims. only 2 out of seven ulema believed that finality of prophethood to be a fundamental part of islam. i repeat, only 2 out of 7!
please look at the matter from a neutral point of view. i am not arguing about the truth of finality of prophethood, i am just talking about is relation to being a muslim! so please be neutral and see that there is no hadith or koranic revelation which supports the current definition.
what made the definition of a muslim change in 21 years from 1953 to 1974?
the koran is the same,
the hadith is the same,
the molvis are the same,
however, the political situation is different!
is this not a clear proof of the relation of definition of a muslim to the political situation?
And yes, there have been clear signs, for those who realize them!
yu can see how exactly the cinstitution of pakistan is being treated. the political situation in pakistan since 1974 is clearly evident! does this not itself speak of the wrath of allah?
when people do things to please allah, allah guides them to the right path. he makes them civilized, and live in peace! is pakistan an example of such a nation????
pakistan, which is all full of cheating, bribery, unrest, killings, thefts, what do you see in pakistan, which does not speak of the curse of allah?
is this the condition of those who please allah? or of those who invite his wrath?
be neutral when answering this!
if you think there is any sign of allah's gifts on pakistan, then i wuld believe in your point that you served allah by making your decision.
i hope that these molvis seek guidance and stop all this, and i pray that more signs of gifts and bounty are visible, and less of wrath and curse. but i am afraid, days of great horror are coming ahead! may god forbid us.