… in response to something i read by someone in one of these threads in the Culture Forum. Someone stated that Bangladeshis are Pakistanis “through and through”, and i am honestly just confused to read that. Wouldn’t that defeat the purpose of certain historical events that occurred, i.e., them gaining their ‘independence’ ? Isn’t it like stating that Pakistanis are Indians “through and through”? Wouldn’t a Bengali person be insulted to read that… i mean sure the cultural and religious similarities abound, but technically speaking, from an official point of view they are two separate groups of people are they not? i don’t want to step on anyone’s toes here, i’m honestly just wondering what the deal is behind this. Why officially celebrate your own independence day if you are essentially perceived of as just the same as someone else?
As for saying that cultural and religious similarities exist between the two groups - well, one could argue the exact same for two Arab countries like the UAE and Oman. Both of them are neighbours of each other, Muscat is not even TOO far from Abu Dhabi. And both share cultural and religious similarities. Okay so the analogy is not that great because neither Gulf country underwent a painful partition process, but - that’s my whole point. Bangladesh and Pakistan did go through a partition so, notwithstanding the fact that they share cultural/religious aspects, it isn’t feasible to state that one group is just the same as the other through and through. It’s like stating that Canadians are Americans; yeah, culturally there are not many differences, but technically speaking, two different groups of people do exist.
Am i right or wrong?