Re: ‘Aitzaz will not be allowed to contest polls’
So help me understand. The lawyers are pissed here because they would have ran in general elections, except that they decided to boycott it at that time, and now Aitzaz is running in a bye-election? I mean, the decision to boycott was a single-man decision (made by Aitzaz alone) or was it made collectively by lawyers?
And is the decision to boycott, a timeless and indefinite decision, or can people decide to get back in the political process at some point?
And most importantly, are they saying its ILLEGAL for Aitzaz to contest election, or they just think its IMMORAL for him to contest a bye-election after lawyers had decided to boycott the original?
This just seems like another publicity stunt by a bunch of eternally pissed off people.