krash
December 5, 2014, 6:04pm
3
Re: Similarities b/w Pakistan and Israel and their followings
More tellingly, Pakistan made a direct impression on Israel’s rulers in the first years of the country’s existence.
In a Haaretz article excerpting work from a new book on Israel and the question of apartheid, South African-born author Benjamin Pogrund explored how Israel followed Pakistan’s lead when it came to administering lands and property captured from the Palestinians who had lived there before. Pogrund writes of the challenge that faced David Ben-Gurion, Israel’s first prime minister, in 1948:In the government debates to decide what to do with the Arab “abandoned property,” the prime minister’s special adviser on land and border demarcation, Zalman Lif****z, argued for the permanent use of refugee property for the political and economic benefit of the new state. He said that countries in similar situations, such as Turkey, Greece, Bulgaria and Czechoslovakia, had taken on vast powers to liquidate refugee property for state use and he urged the Israeli government “to proceed in a similar manner” as “there is no shortage of precedents.”
The laws Lifz got enacted in 1949, Pogrund writes , were “based squarely” on Pakistani precedent. During Partition, millions of Hindus and Sikhs had fled what became Pakistan, leaving behind property and assets that could be appropriated on behalf of the millions of Muslim refugees streaming in from the other side of the border. For Lif z, Pogrund explains, a similar solution made sense for Israel’s Jewish arrivals.
This is such a blatant historical inaccuracy, I wonder how it got into a published book!
Pakistan did not have any laws to claim evacuee property until the 1960s. And, then it was a copy of an exactly similar law enacted by India.
Israel started enacting laws to grab Arab land as early as 1949.