^Plz clarify this. It appears from your post 67, that muslim man can do mutah with non-muslim women, so it means like a muslim man travels to Thailand, meets a woman there, explains he wants to have a one night mutah with her and "mehr" is 100 dollars. So he hasn' comitted a sin, and he can go to his wife, with clear concious that he has not cheated.
^Plz clarify this. It appears from your post 67, that muslim man can do mutah with non-muslim women, so it means like a muslim man travels to Thailand, meets a woman there, explains he wants to have a one night mutah with her and "mehr" is 100 dollars. So he hasn' comitted a sin, and he can go to his wife, with clear concious that he has not cheated.
Many points are not right in place here.
Most Thi women are not from people of book.
Even if that is taken out of scenario, then the intention itself is not correct.
Sahabas RAA did not do Muttah in this kind of setting.
Why it is not cheating when his intention was to cheat?????
There will not be an understanding in these women to follow the rules such as iddat or whatever. The man is not making sure of it either.
In your scenario, man goes, does the deed, pays before or after and leaves.
Not a Muttah!
So, neither man nor woman is following what is callled Muttah in this example.
^Plz clarify this. It appears from your post 67, that muslim man can do mutah with non-muslim women, so it means like a muslim man travels to Thailand, meets a woman there, explains he wants to have a one night mutah with her and "mehr" is 100 dollars. So he hasn' comitted a sin, and he can go to his wife, with clear concious that he has not cheated.
^Plz clarify this. It appears from your post 67, that muslim man can do mutah with non-muslim women, so it means like a muslim man travels to Thailand, meets a woman there, explains he wants to have a one night mutah with her and "mehr" is 100 dollars. So he hasn' comitted a sin, and he can go to his wife, with clear concious that he has not cheated.
**Iddah (Waiting Period) in Mut'ah
**Iddah is obligatory upon women in Mut'ah, just like in Nikah i.e.
A woman cannot enter into Mut'ah marriage, till the time she has become pure by observing the 'iddah (waiting period) from her earlier husband.
And after expiration of Mut'ah marriage, again she has to observe 'iddah, before getting married (either Nikah or Mut'ah) to any other person.
do u think that thai woman accept all the conditions regarding iddah that is b4 n after muttah.its a type of marraige covering loads of issues n purpose.n most of all its permit by Prophet(SA) himself so don make a fun of it rather thn realizing social,psychological n cultural need of mutah.
^What i see is that Mutah was prevelant among arabs before Prophet pbuh, Prophet stopped the practice at time when He saw was right or as Allah commanded him. Just like polygamy was prevelant among arabs, Islam did not start it, Islam only limited it. So i don't think mutah is holy because its not a practice prescribed by Propet pbuh. Just like alcohol, muslims were allowed to drink it till it was made illegal.
^What i see is that Mutah was prevelant among arabs before Prophet pbuh, Prophet stopped the practice at time when He saw was right or as Allah commanded him. Just like polygamy was prevelant among arabs, Islam did not start it, Islam only limited it. So i don't think mutah is holy because its not a practice prescribed by Propet pbuh. Just like alcohol, muslims were allowed to drink it till it was made illegal.
^how do you see it? let's debate on facts, not with opinions and conjectures.
Drinking was made illegal by quran and the Prophet (SAW) never encouraged it. Neither of the conditions hold for Mutah.
^Okay, you tell me when did Prophet pbuh, first described mutah? Who was the first person to do mutah? Did Prophet pbuh at any time was a witness or recited mutah between a man and woman? Did Imam Ali ra or any of Imams recited nikah-e-mutah of someone?