^this is what happens when jahil people start banging the wall and begging for an evidence to show their deviancy. When did you start believing in bukhari?
1 - Umar's (radiAllahu anho) statement is in linguistic sense not sharee sense. In addition, the tarweeh already had basis in Islam. Whatever had basis in Islam is not considered bid'ah in sharee' sense rather it is bid'ah in lingustic sense. A sharee' bid'ah is the one which had no basis in Islam. If it was in sharee' sense, you may had a leg to stand on.
2 - the act of sahaba are not conisdered bid'ah because the Prophet (sal-allahu alayhi wa salam) told us to follow them
LOL....typical response.
Why the 8 tarawih then?