Re: blog in defence of complete Ahlebayt
wellwisher
The Word "Ahle Bayt" has only been used twice (to the best of my knowledge) in Quran. In one instance it was used to address the Ahle Bayt (household) of Ibrahim (s) **after **his wife was giving the glad news of being the mother of two prophets. When only the wife is mentioned the word "ahli" is used..correct? In the case of 33:32 the ayat beings with "ye wives of prophet" not with "ye Ahle Bayt". Even if we go by your interpretation of the Ahle Bayt here, the daughter cannot have been excluded from the verse since Fatima was member of the household or wasnt she? Is there any instance in Quran where a son/daughter was excluded from the household/ahle bayt when it mentioned?
One day the Prophet (PBUH&HF) came out afternoon wearing a black cloak (upper garment or gown; long coat), then al-Hasan Ibn Ali came and the Prophet accommodated him under the cloak, then al-Husain came and entered the cloak, then Fatimah came and the Prophet entered her under the cloak, then Ali came and the Prophet entered him to the cloak as well. Then the Prophet recited: *"Verily Allah intends to keep off from you every kind of uncleanness O' People of the House (Ahlul-Bayt), and purify you a perfect purification (the last sentence of Verse 33:33)." *
Now this narration from Muslim reported from Aisha reveals that the Prophet recited the verse when the five were under the mantle. Nowhere do we find the words that Prophet made a DUA to Allah to include them in the Ahle Bayt nor does he say that Fatima also is part of the Ahle Bayt. He unequivocally declares that they are the Ahle Bayt.
This debate is not ending so its no use continuing it further on from me. The entire perspective is different.
Well this shows how weak you are to accept the hard truth... well regarding the narrations of hz ayesha(ra) then i have answered it multiple times and i didnt get any thing from shia as an answer to that explanation.
Regarding word Ahlebayt in quran it was used 3 times.. all the times for wives..
wife of hz ibrahim(as).. if glad tiding of son was given that doesnt mean she became mother..
mother of moses..she was refered as Ahlebayt because of being wife of imran(father of moosa(as))...
wives of prophet(Saw)..
Example 1:
وَحَرَّمْنَا عَلَيْهِ الْمَرَاضِعَ مِن قَبْلُ فَقَالَتْ هَلْ أَدُلُّكُمْ عَلَى أَهْلِ بَيْتٍ يَكْفُلُونَهُ لَكُمْ وَهُمْ لَهُ نَاصِحُونَ
And we ordained that he refused suck at first, until (His sister came up and) said: “Shall I point out to you the people of a house(ahli bayt) that will nourish and bring him up for you and be sincerely attached to him?”.(28:12)
Even in the verse above the mother of Moses(as) is termed as ahlebayt, not because she was mother of a prophet, but because she was the wife of Imran. And some people like shia scholar aqa pooya mahdi whose tafseer is refered by popular shia website al-islam.org have completely misunderstood this verse, they think that here mother of Moses(as) was termed ahlebayt because she was mother of a prophet, no this is wrong understanding because, the statements which the sister of Moses(as) made , were to the soldiers of firawn , if the sister of Moses(as) was addressing the lady with term ahlebayt because she was mother of Moses(as), then the people there would surely would have questioned her that who is the mother of his child and why did she put the baby in the river and then everything would have been messed up.
Similar is said by a different shia tafseer: **
(The agents of Pharaoh became happy by that statement and began going with her toward that lady. **Moses’ sister, who showed herself as an unacquainted person and a stranger, informed the mother of the matter.) (The Light of The Holy Qur’an by Ayatullah Sayyid Kamal Faghih Imani and A Group of Muslim Scholars, under explanation of verse 20:40)
And if people use their common sense then they can understand this verse easily that, in no way the sister of Moses(as) was signifying any relation between the child and mother of Moses(as), had she done so, she would have been in deep trouble. But infact she addressed mother of Moses(as) with “ahlebayt” because of being the wife of a person(Imran).
Its is possible that after reading convincing response to the illogical arguments raised by them, the shia might try to take a U-turn with their theories , they might say that in this verse a complete household is being addressed, not just a single lady. So to such arguments we answer from the Quran itself . Because the best way is to explain the Quran is through the Quran. For, what the Quran alludes to at one place is explained at the other, and what it says in brief on one occasion is elaborated upon at the other.
Quran says: See how We repeat the verses that they may understand.” (6:65)
“And certainly We have repeated for mankind in this Quran, every kind of similitude, but the majority of mankind do not consent to aught but denying.” (17:89)
Its clear from quran that there was no need for a complete household, But just a single woman who could nurse the child. So why would sister of Moses(as) refer to a complete household? Moreover another verse of quran is more clear to solve the confusion that was it a complete household addressed by sister of moses(as) or just a single lady with the term “ahlebayt” ?
Your sister went to them and said, “May I show you “someone” who will nurse this child?”(sarwar shia translator, 20:40)
Even explained similarly by shia commentators:She told the men of Pharaoh whether she introduced a “woman” to them who was able to nurse the baby. The verse continues saying: (“…’Shall I direct you to one who will nurse him?’ …”) Maybe, she added that this “woman” had a pure milk so that she was sure that the child would accept it. (The Light of The Holy Qur’an by Ayatullah Sayyid Kamal Faghih Imani and A Group of Muslim Scholars, under explanation of verse 20:40) )
From popular Shia website, Al-Islam.org, which contains the authentic Shia Tafseer of Pooya/M.A. Ali. :When it was picked by Firawn’s family and they seemed to love the child, she appeared before them and promised to bring a good “wet-nurse” for the child.(pooya ali, tafseer al islam.org 20:40)
Similar is said in another shia tafseer i.e Tafseer namuna vol 7, page 359
Even sunni commentators explain the same:
she then said, “Shall I show you “someone” who will take care of him?”. Her offer was accepted and so she brought [them] his “mother” and he took to her breasts.(tafseer jalalayn 20:40)
She meant , “Shall I guide you to “someone” who can nurse him for you for a fee” So she took him and they went with her to his real mother.(tafseer ibn katheer, 20:40)
Quran itself answers such misunderstandings , where it clears that sister of moses(as) referred to single women “someone”… the Qur’an is its own best commentary . As we proceed with the study of the Book, we find how true this is. A careful comparison and collation of passages from the Qur’an removes many difficulties.
And moreover if for an instance for sake of argument we agree that it was a complete household addressed, even then no one can deny that fact that, mother of Moses(as) was included in it, and not because of being the mother of the child, as we explained why, but because being the wife of Imran.
Example 2:
قَالُواْ أَتَعْجَبِينَ مِنْ أَمْرِ اللّهِ رَحْمَتُ اللّهِ وَبَرَكَاتُهُ عَلَيْكُمْ أَهْلَ الْبَيْتِ إِنَّهُ حَمِيدٌ مَّجِيدٌ
She said: O wonder! shall I bear a son when I am an extremely old woman and this my husband an extremely old man? Most surely this is a wonderful thing. They said: Do you wonder at Allah’s bidding? The mercy of Allah and His blessings are on you, O people of the house(ahlebayt), surely He is Praised, Glorious.(11:72-73)
In this verse too, wife of hz ibrahim(as) is addressed as ahlebayt, And she was addressed because of being wife of hz ibrahim(as), As explained by quran itself in another chapter:(He went quietly to his wife(ahlihi) and returned to his guests with a fat, roasted calf.(51:26, sarwar shia translator)) *.
But there are some misguided people who fail to understand this and they give wrong, farfetched and out of the mind interpretations to these simple verses. They say, She was mentioned by angles in the above verse as a member of Ahlul-Bayt, AFTER she RECEIVED the glad tiding that she is pregnant of Prophet Isaac (AS).
Firstly, nowhere does the quran says she was pregnant , it just says that she was given a glad tiding of the birth of a child, moreover within the verse it also gives gladtidings of a grandson , no one even the most foolish shia on earth will say that someone was pregnant with that grandson at that time too, because of the glad tidings. Similarily, when Maryam 'Alaiha Al Salam] was given glad tidings of Easa 'Alaihi Al Salam] she was not pregnant at the time [Refer 3:45, 19:19-20, etc].
Secondly, the arabic word used in the verse(11:71) is ضحكت (*Dahikat), Now a good portion of their(shia) scholars explained it as meaning *حاضت (or menstruated).
*
Their scholar Al-Fayd Al-Kashani, for example, [the scholar of his Time and Age - according to them] said in his Tafseer: Al-’Ayashi from [the way of] Al-Sadiq ‘Alaihi Al salam [said: that Dahikat means] ***Haadhat *(she menstruated), same as Al-Qumi who added that she had not had her period for a long time before.
Al-Qumi [said]: Dhahikat meaning Haadhat (she menstruated), and it (i.e. her menstrual cycle) had stopped long before that (i.e. before she menstruated that time, she had not had her period for a long time before that).
There is another Hadeeth in their book with a SaHeeH isnaad **that talk about this.
في كتاب معاني الاخبار ابى رحمه الله قال: حدثنا سعد بن عبد الله عن يعقوب بن يزيد عن ابن ابى عمير عن عبد الرحمن بن الحجاج عن ابى عبد الله عليه السلام في قول الله عز و جل: «فضحكت فبشرناها بإسحق» قال: حاضت.
Here is the SaHeeH hadeeth from Al-Sadooq’s Ma`aanee Al-akhbaar that tells us that this explanation (i.e. that she menstruated) has been authentically reported from one of the Shia infallible Imams.
Thus, It actually says that she didn’t have her period for a long time before she got it this time (refer to the words of Al-Qumi mentioned above which affirms this) meaning that she was Not pregnant at the time. A pregnant women does not menstruate. Based on this, my question would be: According to these scholars and Al-Sadiq (who is infallible according to them), and the understanding they put forth, why would Sarah be included in Ahl Al-Bayt if she was not pregnant at the time?
Moreover one of the shia tafseer even refutes the misunderstanding of the shias who argue that the wife of hz ibrahim(as) was called ahlebayt because of being mother of prophets(as).
**Question: Considering the fact that in the above verse (11:73), the angels addressed Abraham’s wife using the phrase Ahl- ul- Bayt, and since, naturally, everyone’s wife is considered as part of one’s household, why is it then that in the verse of Tathir in the Sura Al Ahzab, No. 33, verse 33,(1) the wives of the Prophet Muhammad(p.b.u.h.) are not included in his household?
Answer: Regarding only the literal meaning of the word, it would be natural for the word Ahl- ul- Bayt to include reference to one’s wife.(The Light of The Holy Qur’an volume 7, section 7, under title “Ministry of Lot ” page 276, (Ayatullah Sayyid Kamal Faghih Imani and A Group of Muslim Scholars )
So this shia commentary agrees that in the verse 11:73, the lady addressed as ahlebayt is because of being wife of hz Ibrahim(as)
Moreover another verse of quran refutes their claim because wife of hz ibrahim(as) was called “ahli” even before she was given the glad tiding of birth of child : He went quietly to his wife(ahlihi) and returned to his guests with a fat, roasted calf.(51:26, sarwar shia translator)
And Allah said : See how We repeat the verses that they may understand.” (6:65)
“And certainly We have repeated for mankind in this Quran, every kind of similitude, but the majority of mankind do not consent to aught but denying.” (17:89)